TJSB-Bank-Ltd Placement-Paper

Discussion in 'Latest Placement papers' started by krishna, May 29, 2013.

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    krishna Banned

    Bank based general awareness, Banking terms
    1. Which of the following statements is true?
    (1) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposits from public
    (2) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public
    (3) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public
    (4) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public -Answer
    (5) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government

    2. Which of the following is the correct statement?
    (1) State Bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
    (2) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
    (3) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
    (4) RBl is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India-Answer
    (5) None of the above

    3. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is
    (1) not regulated by RBI
    (2) regulated by Sate Governments
    (3) regulated by Central Government
    (4) regulated by RBI -Answer(5) regulated by Finance Minister

    4. The usual deposit accounts of banks are
    (1) current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
    (2) current accounts post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
    (3) loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
    (4) current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts-Answer
    (5) current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

    5. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are
    (1) repayable after an agreed period-Answer
    (2) repayable on demand
    (3) not repayable
    (4) repayable after death of depositors
    (5) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank’s choice

    6. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of
    (1) both savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
    (2) savings bank accounts and current accounts-Answer
    (3) both savings bank accounts and loan accounts
    (4) both savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
    (5) both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

    7. Which of the following is correct statement?
    (1) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts-Answer
    (2) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
    (3) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
    (4) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
    (5) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits

    8. Mortgage is a
    (1) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank
    (2) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank-Answer
    (3) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
    (4) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
    (5) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank

    9. Which of the following is known as cross selling by banks?
    (A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder.
    (B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor.
    (C) Insurance of cash against cheque presented by a third party.
    (1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) Both (A) and (C) (5) All (A), (B) and (C)-Answer

    10. Financial inclusion means provision of
    (1) financial services namely, payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same-Answer
    (2) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
    (3) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
    (4) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
    (5) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same

    11. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called
    (1) payment of the cheque
    (2) drawing of the cheque
    (3) canceling of the cheque
    (4) dishonour of the cheque-Answer
    (5) taking of the cheque

    12. NEFT means
    (1) National Electronic Funds Transfer system-Answer
    (2) Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer system
    (3) National Efficient Fund Transfer solution
    (4) Non Effective Fund Transfer system
    (5) Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system

    13. Upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction is
    (1) Rs. 1 lac (2) Rs. 2 lacs (3) Rs. 5 lacs (4) Rs. 50 lacs (5) No upper limit is prescribed-Answer

    14. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate agents is known as
    (1) General Insurance (2) Non-life Insurance (3) Bancassurance-Answer (4) Insurance Banking (5) Deposit Insurance

    15. In order to attract more foreign exchange the Government of India decided to allow foreign investment in LLP firms. What is full form of ‘LLP’ as used in this reference?
    (1) Local Labour Promotion
    (2) Low Labour Projects
    (3) Limited Loan Partnership
    (4) Longer Liability Partnership
    (5) Limited Liability Partnership-Answer

    16. Interest on Saving bank account is now calculated by banks on
    (1) minimum balance during the month
    (2) minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month
    (3) minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
    (4) maximum balance during the month
    (5) daily product basis-Answer

    17. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is
    (1) RBI (2) NABARD (3) LICI (4) Government of India -Answer(5) IBA

    18. When the rate of inflation increases
    (1) purchasing power of money increases
    (2) purchasing power of money decreases-Answer
    (3) value of money increases
    (4) purchasing power of money remains unaffected
    (5) amount of money in circulation decreases

    19. A centralized databases with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is own as
    (1) Investment Banking (2) core Banking-Answer
    (3) Mobile Banking (4) National Banking
    (5) Specialized Banking

    20. The Unit Trust of India came into existence in
    (1) 1960 (2) 1962 (3) 1964-Answer (4) 1966 (5) 1968

    21. Which of the following is example of financial assets?
    (1) National Saving Certificates
    (2) Infrastructure Bonds (3) Indira Vikas Patra
    (4) Krishi Vikas Patra (5) All of the above-Answer

    22. Capital market is a market which deals in
    (1) short-term funds (2) long-term funds-Answer (3) gilt-edge securities (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

    23. Regional Rural Banks fall within supervisory purview of
    (1) SBI (2) RBI -Answer(3) SEBI 4) IRDA (5) None of these

    24. IRDA with its headquarters at ……… is the regulatory authority for all insurance companies in India including the Life Insurance Corporation of India.
    (1) Hyderabad-Answer (2) Bengaluru (3) Mumbai (4) Delhi (5) Chandigarh

    25. Mutual Funds fall within 7 supervisory purview of
    (1) SBI (2) RBI (3) SEBI -Answer(4) IRDA (5) None of these

    26. Which of the following does not come under the category of Development Banks?
    (1) Industrial Development Bank of India
    (2) Small Industries Development Bank of India
    (3) Industrial Investment Bank of India
    (4) State Finance Corporation
    (5) Export-import Bank-Answer

    27. Main financial instruments of corporate sector are
    (1) Shares (ii) Debentures (iii) Public Deposits
    (iv) Loan from Institutions
    Select the correct answer by using of the following codes
    (1) i and ii (2) ii and iii (3) iii and iv (4)1, ii and iv (5) All I, ii, iii and iv-Answer

    28. Financial institutions
    (1) promote savings (2) mobilise savings (3) allocate savings among different users
    (4) All of the above -Answer(5) None of the above

    29. Which of the following is not an / example of primary securities?
    (1) Bills (2) Bonds (3) Shares (4) Book debts (5) New currency-Answer

    30. Indian Financial System / comprises of
    (1) Scheduled Commercial Banks
    (2) Non-banking Financial Institutions
    (3) Urban Cooperative Banks
    (4) All of the above
    (5) None of the above-Answer

    31. The Bombay Stock Exchange was 7 made functional as early as
    (1) 1870 -Answer(2) 1901 (3) 1935 (4) 1951 (5) 1949

    32. The Unit Trust of India come into existence in
    (1) 1964-Answer (2) 1970 (3) 1975 (4) 1980 (5) 1982

    33. 19 July 1969, how commercial Banks were nationalised?
    (1) 13 (2) 14 -Answer(3) 15 (4) 16 (5) 20

    34. New Private Banks are being given licenses since
    (1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993-Answer (4) 1995 (5) 2001

    35. The gilt-edged market refers to the market for
    (i) Government securities
    (ii) Semi-government securities
    (iii) Corporate securities
    Select the correct answer
    (1) only i (2) i and ii -Answer(3) ii and iii (4) i, ii and iii (5) only iii

    36. First share market in India established in
    (1) Delhi (2) Mumbai-Answer (3) Kolkata (4) Chennai (5) None of these

    37. Consider the following statements:
    (i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in capital markets.
    (ii) The best known capital market securities are stocks and bonds.
    Select the correct answer
    (1) (i) is true and (ii) is false (2) (i) is false and (ii) is true (3) Both are true-Answer (4) Both are false (5) None of the above

    38. Consider the following statements:
    (i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in money markets.
    (ii) The best known money market securities are stocks and bonds.
    (1) (i) is true and (ii) is false (2) (i) is false and (ii) is true (3) Both are true (4) Both are false-Answer (5) None of the above

    39. The primary issuers of capital market securities include
    (1) the Central Government (2) the local Government (3) corporations 4) the Central and Local Governments and corporations-Answer (5) Local Government and corporations

    40. Which of the following is a / characteristic of a capital market instrument?
    (a) Liquidity (b) Marketability (3) Long maturity (4) Liquidity premium 5) All of the above-Answer
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    krishna Banned

    41. Which one of the following is a money market instruments?
    (1) A Treasury bill
    (2) A negotiable certificate of deposit was
    (3) Commercial paper
    (4) All of the above -Answer
    (5) None of the above

    42. T-bills are financial instruments initially sold by ________ to raise funds.
    (1) Commercial Banks
    (2) the government-Answer
    (3) corporations
    (4) agencies of the State Government
    (5) None of the above

    43. Commercial paper is a short-term security issued by ________ to raise funds.
    (1) the Reserve Bank of India
    (2) Commercial Banks
    (3) large and well-known companies-Answer
    (4) National Stock Exchange
    (5) State and Local Governments

    44. Which of the following statements is true regarding a corporate bond?
    (1) A corporate callable bond gives the holder the right to exchange it for a specified number of the company’s common shares
    (2) A corporate debenture is a secured /‘ bond
    (3) A corporate indenture is a secured bond
    (4) A corporate convertible bond gives the holder the right to exchange thebond for a specified number of the company’s common shares -Answer
    (5) Holders of corporate bonds have voting rights in the company

    45. Which one of the following is not a money market instrument?
    (1) A Treasury bill (2) A negotiable certificate of deposit (3) Commercial paper (4) Treasury bond-Answer (5) Repo

    46. Money lend for 15 days or more in Inter-bank market is called
    (1) call money (2) notice mone (3) term money-Answer (4) All of these (5) None of these

    47. Money lent for one day is called
    (1) call money -Answer(2) notice money (3) term money (4) All of these (5) None of these

    48. Specified interest rate on a fixed maturity security fixed at the time of issue is called
    (1) market rate of interest (2) call rate (3) repo rate (4) coupon rate -Answer5) discount rate

    49. Lending of scheduled Commercial Banks, on a fortnightly average basis, should not exceed — of their capital fund.
    (1) 25 per cent -Answer(2) 35 per cent (3) 15 per cent (4) 50 per cent (5) None of these

    50. A short-term credit investment created by a non-financial firm and guaranteed by a bank to make payment is called
    (1) bankers acceptance market-Answer (2) collateral loan market (3) treasury bill market (4) call money market (5) repo market

    51.From the given options A to E , please find out the one which is not an objective of a central Bank of a country?
    (A)The central Bank of a country aims at profit-Answer
    (B)The central bank is given powers to control and regulate the working of the commercial banks
    (C)Central Bank generally is a organ of the government and run by government officials
    (D)Central Bank generally controls the credit
    (E)Central bank is generally banker of the government

    52.From the given options, bring out the one which is not a function / power of Reserve Bank of India:
    (A)To assume the responsibility of meeting directly or indirectly all reasonable demands for accommodation
    (B)To hold cash reserves of the commercial banks and make available financial accommodation to them
    (C)To enjoy monopoly of the note issue
    (D)To assume responsibility of all banking operations of the government
    (E)To assume the responsibility of statistical analysis of data related to macro economy of India-Answer

    53.Many a times we read in the newspapers about margin requirements. From the given options, find out the one which correctly indicates margin requirements:
    (A)Margin requirements aim at the regulation of the volume of credit as well as flow of the credit
    (B)Margin requirements imply that every bank has to keep certain minimum cash reserves with the reserve bank of India
    (C)Margin requirements imply that every bank has to keep certain proportion of its total deposits in the form of cash with it self
    (D)Margin requirements imply that RBI has certain rate at which it discounts the bills of exchange of the commercial bank
    (E)Margin requirements imply to a cushion against the decline in the value of the security-Answer

    54.What will be the impact on the cash reserves of commercial banks if RBI conducts a sale of securities ?
    (C)Remain constant
    (D)Increase or decrease
    (E)Increase if the securities are sold in open market operations

    55.Which among the following is a major qualitative control measure in India ?
    (A)Bank Rate Policy
    (B)Open market Operations
    (C)ways and means advances
    (D)Reserve Ratio Requirements
    (E)Margin Requirements-Answer

    56.Many a times we read in the financial newspapers that Reserve bank of India is "Lender of Last Resort (LOLR) " In India. Which among the following statement gives the most correct definition of "Lender of Last Resort"?
    (A)If a person or firm which is eligible to get a loan, does not get it from any commercial bank, may approach to Reserve Bank of India for loan.
    (B)If the state governments are in crisis and need money for short term , they can approach RBI for this purpose
    (C)If a commercial bank is in crisis, it may place its reasonable demand for accommodation to Reserve Bank of India-Answer
    (D)A scheduled commercial bank meets all of its demands in all weathers from Reserve bank of India
    (E)Whenever the government declares a debt relief, the RBI will have to bear the brunt of it.

    57.(The figures in this questions are imaginary). We suppose that Cash Reserve Ratio in country's economy is 10%. The banking system wish a cash deposits of Rs. 1000 Crore, creates total deposits of Rs. 10,000 Crores. The reserve Bank wishes that bank should create more deposits. Which
    among the following step will be taken by the Reserve Bank?
    (A)It will lower the Cash Reserve Ratio-Answer
    (B)It will raise the Cash Reserve Ratio
    (C)It will increase the margin Requirements
    (D)It will start selling Government securities
    (E)It will start rationing of credit

    58.Many a times we read in the newspapers that RBI takes certain steps to curb the menace of Inflation. In this context, which among the following will not help RBI in controlling the inflation in the country?
    (A)An increase in the Bank Rate
    (B)An increase in the Reserve Ratio Requirements
    (C)A purchase of securities in the open market-Answer
    (D)Rationing of the credit
    (E)Increasing the Repo Rate

    59.We suppose that Reserve Bank of India would like to increase the cash Reserves of the commercial Banks. Which among the following would be most appropriate action of the RBI to achieve this aim?
    (A)RBI would release gold from its reserves
    (B)RBI would raise the reserve ratio
    (C)RBI would buy the bonds in the open market-Answer
    (D)RBI will stop the transactions which involve the bills of exchange
    (E)RBI will put more reserves in the International Monetary Fund

    60.Which among the following is a incorrect statement:
    (A)The Reserve Bank of India has the special powers to control and regulate the commercial banking system
    (B)A rise in the bank rate is a strong anti-deflationary monetary tool-Answer
    (C)Minimum Reserve Requirements are fixed to ensure the liquidity and solvency of individual commercial banks
    (D)Reserve Ratio Requirement is a quicker method than bank rate and OMO (Open Market Operations) in general credit regulations
    (E)Rationing of credit is a powerful qualitative monetary tool

    61.Since which year, Reserve bank of India is using the Selective Credit Control measures to control the amount of bank advances against the commodities having limited supply ?

    62.The "Service area Approach" was an strategy launched to improve which of the following?
    (A)Micro, Small and medium Enterprising
    (B)Unorganized Sector
    (C)Rural lending-Answer
    (D)Urban Industrial Lending
    (E)A & B

    63.Which among the following bank / banks in India have set up the Financial Literacy & Credit Counseling centers ?
    (B)Scheduled Commercial banks-Answer
    (C)Foreign Banks working in India
    (D)Regional Rural Banks
    (E)All of above

    64.Which of the following imaginary circumstances, the Reserve bank of India will opt to sell Government securities in the open market?
    (A)When the Foreign funds inflow is meek
    (B)When there is enormous Foreign Funds Inflow in the Indian Economy-Answer
    (C)When banks have low liquidity and need liquidity
    (D)When Government of India asks the RBI to sell securities
    (E)None of the above

    65.Which among the following is correct full form of CAS in context with banking markets in India ?
    (A)Cash Authorization Scheme
    (B)Credit Authorization Scheme-Answer
    (C)Credit Access System
    (D)Credit Arrangement System
    (E)Cash Accreditation Scheme
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    krishna Banned

    TJSB Reasoning questions with answers
    In a code,if ‘-‘means ‘x’,’x’ means ‘+’,’+’means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘-‘ then find the value of the expression [9÷18x15+3-6x12] which is sritten in the code.

    Explanation:By converting the symbols according to the given definitions we get 9-18 ÷3x6+12 solving this by BODMAS rule we get the value as 33

    In a certain code language,if the value of KNOWLEDGE=81 and INNOVATION=100 Then what is the value of INTERNATIONAL?
    Explanation:KNOWLEDGE=81(9*9=81) INNOVATION=100(10*10=100) INTERNATIONAL=169(13*13=169)

    Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
    Explanation:Ans: c) GreyExpl:Except grey all other are different colours of a rainbow

    My school is to the East of my bouse. My father’s office is to the South-West of my school. A park is to the South of my school. Towards which direction is my house located with respect to the park?
    Explanation:As per the given data,we get Picture same as
    MY house is towrds the North -West of the park

    Which of the following has the same relation with “Circle’ as “Diagonal’with the ‘Square’?

    Directions for questions 6 to 10 : These questions are based on following information. A group of digits,symbols and their respective letter codes are given below.

    Conditions (i) If the second and the last elements of the group are digit and symbol respectively then code both of them as ‘j’
    (ii) If both the first and the last elements of the group are symbols then code both of them as ‘D’
    (iii) If third and fourth elements of the group are digit and symbol respectively then interchange thhhheir respective codes.
    (iv) If both the last two elements are symbols then code both of them as ‘Z’
    Find the codes for the groups of elements given below using digit/symbol and their respective codes according to the above conditions.
    3 4 © 9 8 €
    Explanation:The given group of elements of 3 4 © 9 8 € This group follows condition(i) Hence the code is g j d z j

    TJSB english question for practice
    Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

    The great sage once had a group of disciples. They were all very bright and eager students and the sage had all the reasons to be proud of them. One day the sage realized that he had imparted enough knowledge to his disciples. Now they were all very learned. There was only one thing the sage had not taught them, and that was the special verse that could bring the dead back to life. The sage knew that such knowledge was too wonderful and could prove to be a dangerous thing in the hands of someone who was not very wise. The sage pondered over this for a long time. But he also knew that if he did not pass on this secret verse, it could die with him. So, at last he called his cleverest disciple aside and said “I am going to teach you a very special verse. If you chant this you can bring to life a dead person or animal. Use only when you need it to and never misuse or test your powers vainly.” He then called all the disciples together and said, “I am sending you all into the forest for forty days. Go together and come back together. Each one of you has to guide one another and do good things.”So the disciples started out together into the forest. They were all united. But the clever disciple who knew the verse wanted to show he was better than the others. As they walked into the forest, they came across a dead tiger on the way. It was huge and looked wickedly fierce even when dead. The clever disciple stopped and said to the others. “Now I am going to show you what our teacher has taught me alone. He has taught me how to bring life back into the dead.” The others would not believe him and he said, “I would prove it to you by bringing this tiger back to life. “But other disciple said “do not do anything to prove your knowledge vainly. Moreover, if you put life into this tiger, it will only turn on us and kill us all. This will not be a wise thing to do.”But the clever disciple had decided to prove himself and prepared to recite the verse. But before he did so, the other disciples scrambled up to the topmost branches of a big tree nearby. The disciple then recited the magical verse. The tiger slowly began to breathe. “Its working” cried the disciple in excitement and joy. The tiger opened its eyes and saw him jumping and shouting in front of him. Roaring loudly, the tiger pounced on the poor disciple and killed him.The other disciples on the tree watched helplessly as the tiger threw down the dead body of the disciple and went away into the forest. After some time the disciples came down, took the body and went to the sage. The sage looked at them and said, “Now you see what can happen if you don’t use your learning wisely. Let this be a lesson for you.” With that, the sage uttered the magic verse and brought the dead disciple back to life. The sage then taught the verse to all his disciples and sent them into the world to do good. He was sure that after such a lesson, they would be wiser and use their knowledge and learning only for doing good.

    Q1. Why did the other disciples climb the highest branches of the nearby tree ?
    (A) To save their lives from the tiger
    (B) They disliked the clever disciple and were hiding away from him
    (C) To enjoy watching the tiger kill the disciple from a safe distance
    (D) Because the sage had not taught the other disciples the secret verse
    (E) None of these

    Q2. Why did the sage send his disciples to the forest ?
    (A) He wanted to get rid of them
    (B) He had imparted all the knowledge he had and was left with nothing to teach
    (C) He wanted them to be killed by a tiger so that he could test his secret verse
    (D) So that the disciples could practice his secret verse on the wild animals
    (E) None of these

    Q3. Which of the following morals can be drawn from the above passage ?
    (A) A teacher must pass on all his knowledge to others before he dies
    (B) Advice of true friends should always be taken
    (C) Teachers should always be impartial and should impart knowledge to all uniformly
    (D) The knowledge and learning gained should never the misused
    (E) None of these

    Q4. Why did the sage decide to pass on his secret verse to his disciples ?
    (A) So that the cleverest of the disciples may teach other disciples as well
    (B) He did not want the verse to die with him
    (C) So that the tiger may eat the cleverest disciple
    (D) So that he could prove his genius to his disciples
    (E) None of these

    Q5. What did the sage say to his disciple while teaching his secret verse ?
    (A) Never to misuse the power achieved with the help of the verse
    (B) Not to use it on the wild animals
    C) Not to share it with other disciples
    (D) To practice it on animals before humans
    (E) None of these

    Q6. How did the other disciples react when the clever disciple decided to bring the tiger back to life ?
    (A) They felt jealous of him
    (B) They all felt that it was a wise thing to do
    (C) They felt sorry for the tiger
    (D) They tried to stop him as he could put their lives in danger
    (E) None of these
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    Q7. Why was the sage proud of his disciples ?
    (A) Because they had agreed to go to the forest for a long period of 40 days
    (B) Because they had fought against the tiger very bravely
    (C) Because they could bring the dead tiger back to life
    (D) Because they were very bright and eager students
    E) None of these

    Q8. Who/what is described as wicked and fierce by the author ?
    (A) The clever disciple
    (B) The sage
    (C) The tiger
    (D) The forest
    (E) None of these

    Q9. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
    (A) The clever disciple was brought back to life by the sage
    (B) The sage wanted his disciples to use their learning only for doing good
    (C) The sage was biased towards the clever disciple and disliked others
    (D) The sage ultimately taught the secret verse to all his disciples
    (E) All are true

    Q10. Why did the clever disciple recite the verse to the dead tiger ?
    (A) So that the other disciples may be eaten up by the tiger
    (B) To flaunt the power of the verse to the other disciples
    (C) Because the sage told him to do so
    (D) So that he could himself to the sage
    (E) None of these

    Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING.
    Q11. pondered
    (A) guessed
    (B) puzzled
    (C) studied
    (D) thought
    (E) attended

    Q12. pounced
    (A) climbed
    (B) looked
    (C) roared
    (D) plunged
    (E) jumped

    Q13. cried
    (A) wept
    (B) screamed
    (C) protested
    (D) tearfu
    l(E) saddened

    Directions—(Q. 14 –15)
    Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING.
    Q14. bright
    (A) dim
    (B) soft
    (C) dull
    (D) faint
    (E) vague

    Q15. fierce
    (A) timid
    (B) emotiona
    l(C) civilized
    (D) pleased
    (E) domesticated

    Directions—(Q. 16 –20)
    Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentences should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ?
    If the sentence is correct as it is given and No Correction is Required, mark (E) as the answer.

    Q16. He wants a start a new business but he did not have any money.
    (A) Thought to start(B) Want to started(C) Wanted to start(D) Wants for start(E) No Correction Required

    Q17. As Rohan was already late, he had his breakfast while walk down the road.
    (A) walking down the(B) walking at the(C) walked on the(D) walked down the(E) No Correction Required

    Q18. The poor bullock do not move since the cart was overloaded with heavy goods.
    (A) can not move(B) unable to move(C) was not moved(D) could not move(E) No Correction Required

    Q19. He covered the expensive furniture at sheet before he started painting the ceiling.
    (A) with sheet ahead(B) with sheet before(C) in sheet prior(D) in sheet earlier(E) No Correction Required

    Q20. The smoke if inhaled proves to be more fatal than the burn itself.
    (A) be most fatal(B) kill more fatal(C) be additional fatal(D) be greater fatal(E) No Correction Required

    Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentences with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriatein the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

    Q21. Indian peoples (A) invest (B) as much (C) in gold as in bank savings accounts. (D) All correct (E)

    Q22. The issues (A) of hunger and poorty (B) are left behind (C) as we have progressed (D) in technology. All correct (E)

    Q23. Rajan would (A) pick (B) up his children from (C) the school and superwise (D) their homework. All correct (E)

    Q24. A good (A) leader is of prime (B) importance for develop (C) of any organisation. (D) All correct (E)

    Q25. The milk vendor (A) studied hard (B) for four years before topped (C) the national level (D) exam. All correct (E)

    Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—1. The emperor was impressed with me and rewarded me suitably.2. He then asked me to make it shorter without erasing its ends.3. One fine day the king decided to test my intelligence.4. By doing so, I could make the line shorter without erasing the ends.5. After thinking over it for some time, I drew longer lines on both the ends of the line that the emperor had drawn.6. He drew a line on the floor with the help of a chalk

    Q26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

    Q27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) 5(E) 6

    Q28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

    Q29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) 5(E) 6

    Q30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

    Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

    Q31. She considered herself (A) / very fortunate to (B) / have had a (C) / very good education. (D) No error (E)

    Q32. A lot number of people (A) / donate money to the organisation (B) / at this time (C) / of the year. (D) No error (E)

    Q33. The leader of the opposition (A) / is in the danger (B) / of lost his seat (C) / in the next elections. (D) No error (E)

    Q34. He is the same (A) / ice-cream vendor (B) / which sold ice-creams (C) / when we were kids. (D) No error (E)

    Q35. The police received (A) / tremendous support from (B) / the general public (C) / over that issue. (D) No error (E)

    Q36. I have bought for my sister (A) / a bottle of perfume (B) / on her birthday (C) / and I hope she liked it. (D) No error (E)

    Q37. Throughout his tenure (A) / at the office he (B) / have proven himself to be a (C) / talented and hard-working employee. (D) No error (E)

    Q38. The committee did not (A) / approve the plan (B) / since it were (C) / neither practical nor efficient. (D) No error (E)

    Q39. The bus driver drove rashly (A) / and we had (B) / a narrow escape (C) / on a number of occasions. (D) No error (E)

    Q40. He never remember (A) / to pick up the (B) / milk bottles while (C) / picking up the newspaper. (D) No error (E)

    Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Thesenumbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

    The visit to the planet earth museum is always exciting and teaches some interesting …(41)… about the world we live in.Forests are home to nearly half of the world’s plants and animals. Trees clean the air and …(42)… oxygen for us to breathe. Everyday we cut …(43)… trees and destroy more than 36 football fields of forests.Rivers collect rainwater and …(44)… it to the oceans. Farms and factories pollute the rivers with pesticides and chemicals. This is harmful to the marine animals and the humans …(45)… drink it. At the opposite ends of the worlds, Arctic and the Antarctic are freezing cold. So cold that they are …(46)… covered in ice. The fuel we use makes the climate …(47)… It melts the ice and the water level rises which …(48)… to floods. Out planet is …(49)…. We must conserve it by using as much renewable sources of energy as possible. Every individual must play his part to …(50)… to the protection of the environment.

    Q41. (A) concept(B) observation(C) facts(D) experience(E) struggles

    Q42. (A) take(B) acquire(C) display(D) filter(E) produce

    Q43. (A) down(B) lots(C) much(D) through(E) thousands

    Q44. (A) throw(B) dispenses(C) merges(D) carry(E) combines

    Q45. (A) which(B) who(C) whom(D) that(E) those

    Q46. (A) never(B) once(C) most(D) equally(E) always

    Q47. (A) colder(B) uncomfortable(C) heated(D) warmer(E) burning

    Q48. (A) leads(B) results(C) leading(D) grows(E) develop

    Q49. (A) indestructible(B) intense(C) precious(D) expensive(E) lavish

    Q50. (A) help(B) contribute(C) afford(D) result(E) leading
  5. krishna

    krishna Banned

    Directions for questions 1 to 5 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

    I. The ratio of people doing all 3 activities to people doing atleast 2 activities is 1 : 6.
    II. The ratio of people doing only one activity to people doing atleast 2 activities is 3 : 2
    III. Number of people doing only CAT/MBA exceeds number of people doing GRE/MS only by 990.
    IV. Number of people doing only GRE/MS exceeds number of people seeking jobs only by 360.
    1. Number of people doing all 3 activities is :
    1] 500
    2] 1000
    3] 1500
    4] Cannot be determined
    2. Number of people doing no more than on activity is :
    1] 10,000
    2] 9,760
    3] 14,000
    4] 12,000
    3. Number of people doing exactly two activities is :
    1] 6000
    2] 5000
    3] 9000
    4] 10,000
    4. The number of people not doing any activity is :
    1] 760
    2] 570
    3] 1000
    4] Data Insufficient
    5. The number of people who are both seeking employment and trying for GRN/MS is :
    1] 1610
    2] 2430
    3] 1720
    4] Data Insufficient
    Explanatory Answers :
    For answers to questions 1 to 5 :

    Let the different sections be represented by the variables.
    1. p : (x + y + z + p) = 1 : 6
    2. (a + b + c) : (x + y + z + p) = 3 : 2
    ∴ (a + b + c) : p : (x + y + z + p) = 9 : 1 : 6
    Since P = 1
    x + y + z + p 6
    Since P = 1
    x + y + z 5
    ∴ (a + b + c) : (x + y + z) : p = 9 : 5 : 1 ------ (I)
    Again, the total of all areas is :
    (a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 6810 + 7070 + 8120
    (a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 22000
    Using (I)
    9p + 2(5p) + 3p = 22p = 22000
    ∴ p = 1000
    x + y + z = 5000 } (II)
    a + b + c = 9000
    c - b = 990
    b - a = 360
    On solving
    a = 2430
    b = 2790
    c = 3780
    p = people doing all 3 activities = 1000
    a + b + c = people doing exactly 1 activity = 9000
    x + y + z = people doing exactly 2 activities = 5000
    people not doing any activity = EU - (1000 + 9000 + 5000)
    = 15760 - 15000 = 760
    x, y, z cannot be determined without additional data.
    1- [2] 2-[2] 3-[2] 4-[1] 5-[4]
    Directions for questions 6 to 9 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
    Palaash never knew he would be in such trouble. He has to sing in seven different languages. The Assamese song would be a hit if and only if it is preceded by a Telugu song. Konkani song would be a hit only if a Hindi song came before it. English has to be preceded by Hindi and Punjabi is the last song he sings. There is one song between English and Punjabi and of the three only two were hit. Konkani song is a failure. Tamil is the seventh language. If the Assamese song is a hit and his first song was Telugu then:
    6. Which song did he sing after English?
    1] Telugu
    2] Konkani
    3] Tamil
    4] Assamese
    7. Which song did he sing after Konkani?
    1] Tamil
    2] Punjabi
    3] Hindi
    4] English
    8. If each hit had two points in the Grammy awards, then how many points did Palaash get?
    1] 4
    2] 6
    3] 8
    4] Can't say
    9. What were the total number of assured hit songs as per the question?
    1] 3
    2] 4
    3] 5
    4] 6
    Explanatory Answers :
    For answers to questions 6 to 9 :
    From the clues we can see Telugu is the first song, while Punjabi is the last song. Assamese would be second followed by Konkani, Hindi and English. Thus Tamil, the seventh language would be the sixth song. In terms of points there is no information regarding whether Telugu and Hindi songs were a hit or not. Thus we can't say. But regarding the number of assured hits as per the question it would be Assamese, and two songs out of English, Tamil and Punjabi. Thus the answers are
    6- [3] 7-[3] 8-[4] 9-[1]
    Directions for questions 10 to 14 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
    A six digit (with no digit repeated) number is such that every alternate digit is a prime number. The difference between the digit on the tens place and the digit on the thousands place is the digit on the lakh place. The units digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousands place, which is also a prime number. Also tens place digit is greater than the thousandth place digit.
    10. The digit on the lakh place is :
    1] 1
    2] 2
    3] 3
    4] 4
    11. The digit on the units place is :
    1] 2
    2] 4
    3] 6
    4] 8
    12. The positive difference of the the digit on the ten-thousandth place and the the ten's place is :
    1] 3
    2] 4
    3] 6
    4] 7
    13. The digit on the hundred's place is :
    1] 3
    2] 4
    3] 8
    4] Can't say
    14. The number is divisible by :
    1] 2
    2] 3
    3] 4
    4] Both [1] and [3]
    Explanatory Answers :
    For answers to questions 10 to 14 :
    As the unit digit is not a prime number, thus the lakh digit, the thousands digit and the ten's digit will be a prime number.
    As the lakh digit is the difference of two prime numbers and still is a prime number, it is 2. Also the digits on the thousandth and the ten's place can be either 3 and 5 or 5 and 7. As the unit digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousandth 7 (as 5 x 2 = 10, 7 x 2 = 14). Thus it has to be 3. Therefore we see that the digit on the thousandth place is 5 and that on the ten's place is 7. We don't know anything about the digit on the hundredth place. Therefore the number is 235 x 76
    Thus the answer are :
    10- [2] 11-[3] 12-[2] 13-[4] 14-[4]
    Directions for questions 15 to 19 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
    In a gathering of 8 people, A, B, C and D are Software professionals and P, Q, R and S are Hardware professionals. Each person shows atleast one of the following features viz. HK, JM, GS and CP.
    HW : Hardware professional SW : Software Professional
    HK : Has Kids JM : Just Married
    GS : Has grand sons CP : One of the Couples

    A 'CP' may be JM (and vice versa) but definitely not HK or GS.
    A GS can not be JM.
    Neither JM nor CP can be HK or GS.
    GS implies HK but the reverse need not be true.
    P, Q, R, D and S hav only one feature where as others show atleast 1.
    A is JM, where as one of C and D is both CP and JM.
    B is GS but D and A are not HK.
    D and Q always show the same feature.
    R is JM and S is HK.
    The 4 features are shown by atleast one of the SW or HW.
    No professional can show more than two features.
    15. How many professionals are definitely not HK?
    1] 2
    2] 3
    3] 5
    4] 5 or 6
    16. A does not show all of the features except :
    1] JM
    2] GS
    3] Data insufficient
    4] None of these
    17. If A does not show CP then Q does show :
    1] HK
    2] JM
    3] GS
    4] Data insufficient
    18. P can show all of the following except :
    1] JM
    2] GS
    3] CP
    4] None of these
    19. If P is the only HW who is a CP then which of the following is definitely true?
    I. A does not show CP
    II. B may show CP
    III. D show JM
    1] I only
    2] II only
    3] III only
    4] None of these
    Explanatory Answers :
    For answers to questions 15 to 19 :
    The following matrix can be formed based on the given information
    SW HW
    A B C D P Q R S
    HK × ü × × × ü
    JM ü × ü ü ×
    GS × ü × × × × × ×
    CP × ü × ×
    15. Five professionals are definitely not HK, P may or may not be HK. Hence, [3].
    16. Now A may or may not be CP. Hence [3].
    17. We don't know whether Q is JM or CP. Hence, [4].
    18. P cannot show GS. Hence, [2].
    19. I : A may or may not show CP. Hence, I may be false.
    II : B cannot show more than 2 features. Hence, II is false.
    III : D should show JM as Q will show JM. Hence, III is true. Hence, [3].
    Directions for questions 20 to 23 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
    I have got two uncles, Joe and John and two aunts, Jane and Jill. While uncle Jose is not married, uncle John is married and has two sons as well. Aunt Jane is a widow and has only one daughter. My mother is the only one in the family who has a real sister while she has no brothers. My father works in the diamond factory while my paternal grandparents live with us. We are a joint family. Then :
    20. How many members are there in our family?
    1] 10
    2] 11
    3] 12
    4] 13
    21. How many cousin sisters do I have?
    1] None
    2] One
    3] Two
    4] Three
    22. Who is married to Uncle John?
    1] Jane
    2] Jill
    3] None of these
    4] Can't Say
    23. How many children do my paternal grandparents have?
    1] Two
    2] Three
    3] Four
    4] Five
    Explanatory Answers :
    For answers to questions 20 to 23 :

    The family heirarchy will be like this :

    20. 12 members in the family. Hence, [3].
    21. Only one cousin sister. Hence, [2].
    22. Aunt Jill is married to Uncle John. Hence, [2].
    23. 3 sons, my father, Uncle Joe and Uncle John. Hence, [2].
    24. The total number of female members in the family is 5. Hence, [4].
    25. The years can be calculated as:
    1980 - 15 + 1 + 10 + 2 + 6 = 1984. Hence, [3]
  6. krishna

    krishna Banned

    Directions for questions 24 to 25 : Choose the correct alternative.

    24. Mr. Gupta is Rita and Sita's father-in-law. Amit is married to Sita and has got two daughters. Rita has only one son. If Mr. Gupta has only two sons and Mrs. Gupta is alive then how many female members are there in the Gupta faimly?
    1] 2
    2] 3
    3] 4
    4] 5

    25. I build a time machine in 1980. The peculiar ;thing about the time machine was that it had a range of twenty years into the future and 30 years into the past. I used the machine and went back 15 years. After spending a year in the past, I gain used it and went 10 years into the future. There I spend around two years and finally went to the future by 6 years. In which year did I land up?
    1] 1980
    2] 1983
    3] 1984
    4] None of these

    Directions for questions 23 to 30 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
    Cars and motorcycles continued to surge ahead even as "Made in India" automobiles like commercial vehicles, multi-utility vehicles, scooters, mopeds and three-wheelers failed to attract overseas buyers this fiscal. Car exports shot up by a huge 105% at 42,444 units during 2001-02 on the back of a superb performance by Ford India, which accounted for more than half of the total exports. Ford shipped 27,572 units of its mid-size car "Ikon" to countries like South Africa and Mexico. Car market leader Maruti Udyog, however, posted a 35.7% dip at 8,559 units during 2001-02. South Korea's Hyundai also witnessed a 14.5% decline in exports at 4,494 units (5250 cars last year). Car exports of Telco surged ahead by 261.6% at 1,689 cars (467 cars last year) while that of General Motors slipped to 40 cars year-on-year from 69 units. In sharp contrast to passenger car segment, commercial vehicle exports slumped by 19.9% at 9,683 units. While medium and heavy (M&H) vehicles exports went down by 18.2% to 3,891 units, that of light commercial vehicles (LCVs) declined by 22.3% at 5,792 units. Telco's M&H exports fell by 24.4% to 2,118 units while LCVs dipped by 36.2% to 4,036 vehicles during 2001-02. Ashok Leyland, India's second largest commercial vehicle marker, reported a 6.7% land 4.8% drop in M&H and LCV exports at 1,725 units and 98 units respectively. However, exports of LCV markers like Eicher, Swaraj Mazda and Mahindra & Mahindra rose by 61.6%, 56.5% and 68.2% at 1,062, 321 and 274 units respectively. Two-wheeler exports went down by 9.2% to 91,731 units as scooter and moped exports declined by 15.7% and 41.7% at 19,369 units and 22,801 unit5s respectively. Howeer, exports of motorcycles recorded a 13% rise at 17,490 units while tha tof Bajaj Auto rose by 158% to 15,951 units. Hero Honda posted a 29.4% rise at 11,833 units. Exports of TVS Motors dipped by 13.7% to 2,273 units while Royal Enfield saw a rise of 63.6% to 1,357 units. Scooter markers like Bajaj and TVS posted a 31.5% and 137% jump in exports at 7,996 and 897 units respectively while LML and Kinetic exports dipped by 27.8% and 57.5% to 6,709 and 3,702 units.
    26. If only 5 companies, Ford, Maruti Udyog, Hyundai, Telco and General Motors exported cars in 2000-01, how many cars did Ford export in 2000-01?
    1] 1645
    2] 1607
    3] 1700
    4] 1555
    27. By how much were the total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-02, higher or lower than those in 2000-01? (Telco manufactures only cars and commercial vehicles)
    1] 18.3% lower
    2] 15% lower
    3] 12% higher
    4] almost same
    28. What were the total vehicle exports in 2000-01?
    1] 133940
    2] 135000
    3] 132750
    4] 131680
    29. If the average export realization of motorcycles has reduced from Rs.45,000 per unit in 2000-01 to Rs.40,000 per unit in 2001-02, what is the change in export volumes?
    1] Rs.218 million increase
    2] Rs.218 crore increase
    3] Rs.2.18 billion increase
    4] Rs.2180 million increase
    30. If the average export realization per car for Maruti Udyog has increased by 40%, then what is the percentage change in car exports for Maruti in value terms?
    1] 10% increase
    2] 10% decrease
    3] 5% decrease
    4] 5% Increase
    Explanatory Answers :
    For answers to questions 20 to 23 :
    Car 2001-02 20000-01 M&H 2001-02 20000-01
    Ford 27572 1607 Telco 2118 2802
    Maruti 8559 13311 Ashok Ley. 1725 1849
    Hyundai 4494 5250
    Telco 1689 467 3891 4757
    GM 40 69
    42444 20704

    LCV 2001-02 20000-01 Motorcycles 2001-02 20000-01
    2001-02 20000-01
    Telco 4036 63265 Yamaha 17490 Bajaj 7996
    Ashok Ley. 98 103 TVS 15951 TVS 897
    Eicher 1062 657 Royal Enfield 11833 LML 6709
    Swaraj 321 205 Kinetic 3702
    M&M 274 163 49561 39200
    19369 22976
    5792 7454 Mopeds 22801 39110

    26. Total car exports in 2000-01 = (1 + 1.05) = 20704
    Car exports by Maruti in 2000-01 = 8559 = 8559/0.643 = 13311
    (1 - 0.357)
    Car exports by Hyundai in 2000-01 = 5250
    Car exports by Telco in 2000-01 = 467
    Car exports by General Motors in 2000-01 = 69
    Therefore, car exports by Ford in 2000-01 = 20704 - 13311 - 5250 - 467 - 69 = 1607 units. Hence, [2].

    27. Number of vehicles exported by Telco in 2001-02 = 1689 + 2118 + 4036 = 7843
    Car exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 467
    Multi-utility vehicles exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 2118 = approx. 2118/0.756 = 2802
    LCVs exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 4036 = approximately 4036 = 6326
    (1-0.362) 0.64
    Total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-01 = 467 + 2802 + 6326 = 9595
    Therefore, ratio of Telco's exports in 2001-02 to those in 2000-01 = 7843 = approximately 7845 = 0.817 = 81.7%
    9595 9600
    Therefore, Telco's exports in 2001-02 were 18.3% lower. Hence, [1].

    28. Car exports in 2000-01 = 20704
    M&H vehicle exports in 200-01 = 3891 ≈ 3900/0.82 = 4756
    LCV exports in 2000-01 = 5792 = 7454
    Two-wheeler exports in 2000-01 = 91731 = 101025

    Therefore, total vehicle exports in 2000-01 = 20704 + 4757 + 7454 + 101025 = 133939. Hence, [1].

    29. Motorcycle export value in 2001-02 = 49561 × 4000 = 1982440000 or Rs.1982.44 million
    Motorcycle exports in 2000-01 = 49561 ≈ 49000/1.25 = 39,200
    Motorcycle exports value in 2000-01 = 39200 × 45000 = 1764000000 or Rs.1764 million
    Therefore, motorcycle exports have increased by (1982-1764) = Rs.218 million. Hence [1].

    30. Let x units be exported by Maruti Udyog for an average realization of y rupees per car in 2000-01. Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog in 2000-01 = x × y rupees
    Exports of Maruti Udyog in 2001-02 = x × (1-0.357) × y × 1.40 = 0.90 × x × y Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog have decreased in value terms by about 10%. Hence,[2].
    Directions for questions 31 to 35: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
    Table shows Births to date and Lifetime births expected per 1,000 women for Selected Years from 1976 to 1998 (Numbers in thousands and age of women at survey date.)
    Source : U.S. Census Bureau
    Internet Release date : October 18, 2001
    Characteristics Total, 18 to 34 years 18 to 24 years 25 to 29 years 30 to 34 years
    Births to date Lifetime births expected Births to date Lifetime births expected Births to date Lifetime births expected Births to date Lifetime births expected
    1998 1,104 2,045 532 1,936 1,150 2,082 1,662 2,127
    1992 1,135 2,098 521 2,053 1,181 2,137 1,679 2,106
    1990 1,130 2,116 537 2,062 1,152 2,152 1,695 2,135
    1988 1,095 2,073 459 2,045 1,163 2,116 1,674 2,057
    1987 1,125 2,074 503 2,057 1,219 2,111 1,689 2,055
    1986 1,114 2,099 497 2,087 1,171 2,117 1,734 2,094
    1985 1,098 2,062 508 2,046 1,193 2,113 1,674 2,029
    1983 1,096 2,079 481 2,071 1,220 2,082 1,786 2,088
    1982 1,086 2,023 453 1,994 1,241 2,026 1,792 2,059
    1981 1,136 2,048 517 2,033 1,273 2,012 1,857 2,106
    1980 1,127 2,059 507 2,023 1,238 2,022 1,905 2,150
    1979 1,144 2,072 514 2,033 1,269 2,033 1,942 2,170
    1978 1,171 2,113 496 2,033 1,324 2,060 2,066 2,297
    1977 1,197 2,133 485 2,052 1,345 2,049 2,150 2,351
    1976 1,263 2,160 528 2,030 1,442 2,098 2,266 2,445

    Note : Only women reporting on number and future births expected are included in this table.
    Source : Current Population Survey, June 2000.
  7. krishna

    krishna Banned

    31. What year has the maximum ratio of births to date to life time birth expected in the category of 18 to 24 ?
    1] 0.25
    2] 0.27 (Ans)
    3] 0.29
    4] 0.31
    Ans : For the year 1998 the ratio is highest = 532/1936 = 0.27.
    32. Which year has the maximum ratio birth to date to lifetime birth expected in 30-34 category?
    1] 1981
    2] 1978
    3] 1977
    4] 1976 (Ans)
    Ans : For the year 1976 the ratio is 0.93, which is higher than ratios of other years.
    33. In the year 1999, if the birth to date is expected to rise by 10% while lifetime birth expected is to remain same in the category of 25-29. What is the new ratio of the birth to date to lifetime birth expected in year 1999 in the category of 25-29 ?
    1] 0.5
    2] 0.6 (Ans)
    3] 0.7
    4] None of these
    Ans : New ratio = 1150 × 1.1 = 0.61 ≈ 0.6
    34. In which year lifetime birth expected has shown maximum percentage increase in the category of 18-24 as compared to previous year?
    1] 1977-78
    2] 1978-79
    3] 1982-83 (Ans)
    4] 1988-90
    Ans : 1982-83 the percentage increase is by 4% which is more than other alternatives.
    35. What is the maximum decrease in the births to date from 1976-1998 in any of the categories?
    1] 101
    2] 107
    3] 116
    4] None of these (Ans)
    Ans : In the year 1978-79 there is decrease in births to date by 124 in 30 to 34 category.
    Directions for questions 36 to 40: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
    The table below shows establishments by group of total area, by Mesoregions, Microregions and Municipalities in Brazil.
    Mesoregions, Microregions and Municipalities Establishments by groups of total area (ha), on 12.31.1995
    Less than 10 10 to less than 100 100 to less than 200 200 to less than 500 500 to less than 2000 2000 and over Not informed
    134 803 217 097 52 061 23 477 12 333 3 799 2 605
    Rondonia 17 618 43 581 10 591 3 389 1 398 377 21
    Acre 3 962 13 647 3 753 1 528 742 156 105
    Amazonas 43 793 34 066 3 237 1 314 482 130 267
    Roraima 1 025 2 990 1 771 760 504 345 81
    Para 64 838 104 435 24 180 7 955 3 478 1 313 205
    Amapa 953 1 095 739 297 140 51 74
    Tocantins 2 614 17 283 7 790 8 234 5 589 1 427 1 976
    Nordeste 1 570 511 604 261 67 596 43 996 19 504 3 217 17 328
    Maranhao 272 100 59 360 11 207 7 267 3 370 633 14 254
    Piaui 134 949 55 192 8 888 5 250 2 274 445 1 113
    Ceara 245 312 76 199 9 472 5 711 2 259 264 385

    36. What is the percentage difference between Norte and Maranhao in the less than 10 category?
    1] 98%
    2] 100%
    3] 102% (Ans)
    4] 104%
    Ans : Percentage difference = (272100 - 134803) × 100 = 102%
    37. What is the sum of establishments in 100 to less than 200 category?
    1] 218135
    2] 201185 (Ans)
    3] 205035
    4] 215685
    Ans : After summation we get value of 201285 ≈ 201000.
    38. By how much the sum of establishments of Maranhao is greater than that of Piaui?
    1] 140000 ha
    2] 150000 ha
    3] 160000 ha (Ans)
    4] 170000 ha
    Ans : Difference = 368191 - 208111 = 160080 ≈ 160000.
    39. Sum of which area is the greatest?
    1] Maranhao
    2] Piaui
    3] Ceara
    4] Norte (Ans)
    Ans : Norte has the highest value of 446175.
    40. Find the lowest total area amongst the various groups. (less than 10 etc.)
    1] Roraima
    2] Acre
    3] Amapa
    4] Rondonia (Ans)
    Ans : Rondonia has the lowest value of 21 in not informed category.
    Directions for questions 31 to 35: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
    Give below is the data of M/s. Siddhi Chemicals from 1995-1999 (in Rs.'000)
    I41. What is the profit after tax for the year 1998?
    1] Rs. 1.3 lakhs
    2] Rs. 0.065 lakhs
    3] Rs. 0.65 lakhs (Ans)
    4] None of these
    Ans : Revenue for 1998 = Rs.600000
    Cost for 1998 = Rs. 500000
    Profit after tax = 0.65(600000 - 500000) = 65000 = 0.65 lakhs.
    42. In which year was the percentage change in profit after tax, minimum with respect to previous years percent change in profit after tax?
    1] 1996 (Ans)
    2] 1997
    3] 1998
    4] 1999
    Ans :
    1995-96 200 → 100 (-50%)
    1996-97 100 → 300 (+200%)
    1997-98 300 → 100 (-66.67%)
    1998-99 100 → (-100) (+200%)
    ∴ The % change is minimum in 1996.
    Note : % change in profit after tax and % change in profit before tax shall be same as tax rate is constant throughout.
    43. What is the total tax collection from 1995-1998?
    1] Rs. 2.45 lakhs (Ans)
    2] Rs. 02.1 lakhs
    3] Rs. 24,0500
    4] Rs. 21,000
    Ans : Total profit before tax = Rs.700,000
    Tax = 35% of Rs.700000 = Rs.245000.
    44. If Margin = Profit after tax × 100, what is the average margin from 1995-1999 ?
    1] 18%
    2] 14% (Ans)
    3] 21%
    4] None of these
    Ans : Margin 1995 = 130/600 ≅ 22%
    1996 = 65/400 ≅ 16%
    1997 = 195/500 ≅ 39%
    1998 = 65/600 ≅ 11%
    1999 = -100/500 ≅ -20% (assuming no tax benefit)
    ∴ Average Margin = 22 + 16 + 39 + 11 - 20/5 = 68/5 = 13.6% ≅ 14%
    45. What shall be the profit before tax in year 2000, if the annual growth rate of revenue and cost is same as in 1999?
    1] -2.5 lakhs
    2] -3 lakhs (Ans)
    3] -2 lakhs
    4] -3.5 lakhs
    Ans : Revenue in 2000 = 500000 × 5/6 ≅ Rs.417000
    Cost in 2000 = 600000 × 1.2 = Rs.720000
    Profit before tax = 417000 - 720000 ≅ - Rs.3 lakhs (approximately).
    Directions for questions 46 to 55 : Each of the following questions is followed by two statements.
    Mark [1] , if the question can be answered by using any of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.
    Mark [2] , if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
    Mark [3] , if the question can be answered only by using both the statements together.
    Mark [4] , if the question cannot be answered.
    46. Decide whether the square root of the integer x is an integer.
    I. The last digit of x is 2.
    II. x is divisible by 3.
    Ans : The key fact to solving this problem is that digit of a square of an integer is the same as the last digit of the integer squared. For example, the last digit of the square of 94 is 6, which is the same as the last digit of the square of 4, which is 16. If you square each digit {0, 1, 2,...., 8, 9}, you will see that the only possible last digits for a square are 0, 1, 4, 5, 6 and 9. Thus, if the last digit of x is 2, x can not be a square. So the square root of x is not an integer. So statement I alone is sufficient. Since 12 is divisible by 3 and is not a square but 36, which is also divisible by 3, is a square, statement II alone is not sufficient. Hence, [1]
    47. How tall is the tallest among the three people?
    I. The average height of three persons is 170 cms.
    II. The shortest person is 145 cms.
    Ans : Average height can not give any idea of tallest person and height of shortest person does not give any solution alone. Thus, each statement alone is insufficient. Combining I and II:
    A + B + 145 = 170 x 3
    One equation and two variables, data is insufficient. Hence, [4].
    48. Is N an odd number?
    I. 2N is an even number
    II. 7N is an even number
    Ans : From I : 2 N is even : Any number multiply by 2gives even number, so N can not be identified.
    Thus, I alone is not sufficient.
    From II : 7N is an even number, only if N is an even number. Therefore N is an even number. Hence, [1].
    49. What is the value of two digit number whose digits are x and y?
    I. The difference of x and y is 8.
    II. If the digits are reversed, the number increased by 27.
    Ans : First statement gives x - y = 8.
    No single solution can satisfy second statement 10y + x - 10x - y = 27
    9x - 9y = 27
    x - y = 3
    No single solution satisfy
    Both the statements contradict each other. Hence, [4].
    50. What is the value of the positive integer K?
    I. K is divisible by 16 and 24
    II. The square of K is less than 84,100
    Ans : Each statement alone cannot give any single solution. Square of K less than 84100 means, k less than 290 LCM of 16, 24 is 48
    Number less than 290 and divisible by 48 is 96, 144, 192, 240 and 288.
    Therefore, unique solution for k can be found. Hence, [4]
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    51. How many students failed in both English and Math?
    I. 20 passed in Math and 15 passed in English
    II. The percentage of students who passed in Math was 80
    Ans : Each statement alone is not sufficient to answer.
    Total number of students was 25 (80% students passed in Maths = 20)
    It give no idea of how many students failed in both the subjects. Hence, [4].
    52. The three numbers a, b, c are all positive and are in geometric progression. Is the common ratio of the GP less than 1?
    I. a, b and c are all fractions less than 1.
    II. 1/a is less than 1/b.
    Ans : Statement I doesn't give any information
    Statement II gives a > b, i.e. b/a < 1
    Therefore a > b > c, it means common ratio is less than 1. Thus, II alone is sufficient. Hence, [1].
    53. a, b, c are integers and a/(b-c) = 3. What is the value of (b-c)/b?
    I. a/b = 3/7.
    II. a and b have no common factor greater than 1.
    Ans : From statement I a = 3b/7
    a = 3 x (b - c)
    ∴ 3 x (b - c) = 3b/7
    (b - c)/b = 1/7
    Statement 2 gives no relation between a and b. Hence, [1].
    54. The owners of a plant need to send a shipment to a distributor in a different town. They can ship either by truck or by ship. If the trucking fee is based on miles and the ship is based on tons, which is the less expensive means of transportation for this shipment?
    I. The location of the distributor is 500 km away.
    II. The trucking charges are Rs.500 plus Rs.2 per km, and the water freight charges are Rs.1500 plus Rs.4,000 per ton.
    Ans : The truck fee is based on miles and the water freight fee is based on tons. So you will need to find something like the price per Km for the trucking and how far the trucks have to go and the price per ton for ship freight and how many tons need to be transported.
    Statement I : This statement tells you nothing about the cost of sending the shipment by truck or by ship freight, so it is insufficient.
    Statement II : This tells you nothing about the distance between the cities, which you would need to know in order to find the cost of sending the shipment by truck. Further, it does not tell you the weight of the shipment, which you would need to know in order to find the cost of sending the shipment by water freight.
    Statements I and II : You still can't find the cost of sending the shipment by ship freight because you don't know the weight of the shipment. Hence, [4].
    55. The shard price of Wipro has risen consistently for 10 years. What would be its worth in December 1998?
    I. In December 1994, the share was valued at Rs.50.
    II. During the bull market from 1994 to 1999, the share value increased by 10% each year.
    Ans : Statement I : Alone is obviously insufficient.
    Statement II : You need to know what the stock was worth at some time between 1994 and 1999. So, II alone is insufficient.
    By using I and II together you can figure out the worth of a share in December 1998. Hence, [3].
    Directions for questions 56 to 61: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
    The terms of GP's are related to the terms of an AP in the following way :
    The first term and common difference of the AP are a and d respectively.
    The number of GP's is equal to the number of terms in the AP.
    The first term of all the GP's is same as the first term of the AP.
    The common ratio of nth GP is 'a' less than the nth term of the AP.
    The number of terms in any GP is equal to that in the AP.
    The first GP's has 'unity' common ratio.
    'a' is a positive natural number.
    56. If the common difference of the AP is 1/2, what is the largest term amongst AP and GP's given that AP consists of 9 terms?
    1] a + 4
    2] 4a
    3] (4)8a (Ans)
    4] (9/2)aa
    Ans :
    AP a a+d a+2d a+3d ........ a + 8d ........
    GP1 a a a a ........ a .......
    GP2 a ad ad2 ad3 ........ ad8 ........
    GP3 a a(2d) a(2d)2 a(2d)3 ........ a(2d)8 ........
    GP4 a a(3d) a(3d)2 a(3d)3 ........ a(3d)8 ........
    - - - - - - - -
    - - - - - - - -

    Since AP has 9 terms, its last term = a + 8d = a + 4.
    Second GP here is GP2 with highest term a.
    Since 'a' is positive and natural and d is a fraction any other term of a GP is less than a.
    GP3 has common ratio = 1/2 x 2 = 1.
    Hence, GP3 here, is same as GP1
    GP4 has common ratio = 3/2. Its highest term = a (3/2)8
    and so on.
    The largest tem will be for GP9 which is a (8/2)8 = a(4)8. Hence, [3].
    57. If the common difference of the AP is an Egyptian fraction, at least how many GP's will be exactly identical? (An Egyptian fraction is one in which numerator is '1' and denominator is a positive integer more than 1).
    1] All the GP's may be unique
    2] 2
    3] More than 2 but finite number
    4] Infinitely many
    Ans : As seen in previous question if d = 1/2; GP1 and GP3 are the same
    If d = 1/3 ⇒ GP1 and GP4 will be identical and so on Hence, the minimum number of identical GP's is 2. Note, that [1] is definitely false. Hence, [2].
    58. In previous question what is the maximum number of identical GPs if d is not an Egyptian fraction?
    1] All the GP's may be unique
    2] 2
    3] More than 2 but finite number
    4] Infinitely many
    Ans : Consider a case when d is 1, all the GP's will be same. The number of GP's may be infinite as the number of terms in the AP may be infinite. Hence, [4].
    59. What is the total number of terms (including the terms of AP and all GPs) if the number of terms of AP is a perfect square i.e., x2 ?
    1] x2 + x
    2] (x2 + x)2
    3] (x2 + x)2 - 2(x)3
    4] x4 - x2
    Ans : If number of terms in AP = x2
    Total number of GPs = x2, each with x2 number of terms
    Hence, total number of elements in all = x2 + x4
    Consider [3]. (x2 + x)2 - 2x3 = x4 + x2 + 2x3 - 2x3
    = x4 + x2
    Hence, [3].
    60. If the second term of the second GP and the 3rd term of the third GP are 6 and 144 respectively, then what is the sum of first 10 terms of an AP ?
    1] 105
    2] 280
    3] 310
    4] Data insufficient
    Ans : If a and d are the first term and common difference respectively
    GP2 (2) = ad = 6 ---- (i)
    GP3 (3) = a(2d)2 = 144 ---- (ii)
    Divide (ii) ÷ (i)
    ∴ 4d = 144/6 = 24 ⇒ d = 6
    Put d = 6 in (i) ⇒ a = 1
    Hence, ∑ (AP) = n/2 (2a + (n - 1)d) = 10/2 (2(1) + 9 x 6) = 5 (2 + 54) = 280
    Hence, [2].

    61. In the above question, what is the sum of all the terms in the series (inclusive of AP and GPs)?
    1] 290 + ∑ [(6n)10 - 1/5!]
    2] 280 + ∑ [(6n)10 -- 1/(6n - 1)]
    3] 310 + ∑ [(6n)10 - 1/5n]
    4] 290 + ∑ [(6n)10 - 1/(6n - 1)]

    Ans : Since a = 1, d = 6 and n = 10
    Hence, Stotal = SAP + ∑ SGPn
    SGP1 = a + a + .... a = 10
    SGP2 = a . d10 - 1/d - 1 = 1 610 - 1/5
    SGP3 = a . (2d)10 - 1/(2d - 1) = (12)10 - 1/11
    SGP4 = a (3d)10 - 1/(3d - 1) = 1810 - 1/17
    SGP10 = a (ad)10 - 1/(ad - 1) = 5410 - 1/53

    Now, S (total) = 280 + ∑ SGPn
    280 + 10 + ∑ [(6n)10 - 1/(6n - 1)]
    Which is same as [4] . Hence, [4].

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