SBI Placement-Paper on 22 April 2013

Discussion in 'Latest Placement papers' started by krishna, Apr 30, 2013.

  1. krishna

    krishna Banned

    SBI model aptitude questions with answers with detailed explanations
    1. The average age of 20 students in a class is 20. When the age of their class teacher commuted with the total age of students, their average age, including the class teacher's raises to 21. If so, what is the age of the class teacher ?
    (a) 40
    (b) 36
    (c) 41 (Ans)
    (d) 44
    Answer : Total age of 20 students = 20 * 20 = 400.
    After inclusion of teacher, total age = 21 [No of members] * 21 [New average age] = 441.
    Age of new entrant [teacher] = 441 - 400 = 41
    2. Rajan travels from Kannur to Kozhikode by a car at speed of 60 Km/hour and returns back by hiring a gipsy at a speed of 50 Km/ hour. Then what will be the average speed of his vehicles through out their to and fro journey. ?
    (a) 54-6/11 km/hour (Ans)
    (b) 57 km/hour
    (c) 55-6/11 Km/hour
    (d) 54-5/11 Km/hour
    Answer : If 'a' & 'b' are the speed in to and fro journey of vehicles By short method formula to arrive average speed = 2ab/a+b
    ie, 2*60*50 /60+50 = 6000/110 = 54-6/11

    3. Mr. X complete a piece of work with in 8 hours and whereas Mr. Y complete the same piece of work in 6 hours. If both Mr. X & Y operate the same work jointly, in how may hours they complete the same work ?
    (a) 7/14 Hrs
    (b) 24/7 Hrs (Ans)
    (c) 5 hours
    (d) Not given
    Answer : If 'x' and 'y' be the number of days required individually by two persons, then by Short method formula, the number of days required to complete the same work by joining them is = xy = 6*8 = 48
    x+y 6+8 14
    = 24/7 [If three persons worked the short method formula becomes as xyz .]
    xy + xz + zx

    4. Raman & Krishnan will complete a job in 6 days and 12 days respectively according to their capacity. Govindan will complete the same of piece of work in a single day that which Raman & Krishnan both do in a single day. If Krishnan and Govindan wishes to complete the same work, in how many days they take to finish the work
    (a) 5 days
    (b) 3 days (Ans)
    (c) 4 days
    (d) 4.5 days
    Answer : Here Raman and Krishnan do the work in 6*12 days ie 72 ie in 4 days
    6+12 18
    It is stated that the job of Raman & Krishnan in one day is equals to Govindan's one day work. Otherwise it means that Govindan complete the assigned work in 4 days. If Krishnan & Govindan work jointly, the work will be completed in
    12*4 = 48 = 3 days
    12+4 16

    5. A train running in 90Km/hour, having 100 metres long, crosses a train running in another track in opposite direction with speed of 54 Km per hours having 140 metres. How many seconds will take the trains to cross each other fully ?
    (a) 9 seconds
    (b) 6 seconds (Ans)
    (c) 8 seconds
    (d) No given
    Answer : Here we want to calculate the relative speed or velocity. Since the trains are moving in opposite directions the relative speed will arrive by summing up i.e. 90 Km hr + 54 Km/hr = ie. 144 Km/hour = 40 m/secs [to convert Km/hour to metres/seconds we want to multiply the term by 5/18.]
    The total distance of crossing, [i.e. length of two trains] = 100m + 140m = 240m
    The time required to cross 240m by 40m/secs speed = 240/40 = 6 seconds [Conversion of metres/seconds to KM/seconds will be arrived by multiplying by 18/5.]
    SBI English previous years solved question papers
    1. Find out which part of the sentence has an error
    (a) They were traveling
    (b) in the metro when they heard (Ans)
    (c) a weird sound very close to them
    (d) No Error

    2. The ........... growth of the jungle hid the ancient ruins completely.
    (a) thickly
    (b) luxurious
    (c) densely
    (d) luxuriant (Ans)

    3. It is the house ....... door is painted red.
    (a) that
    (b) whose (Ans)
    (c) which
    (d) none of these

    4. He did time for more than six months. This sentence means ;-
    (a) He fought against time until his views accepted for more than six months.
    (b) He gave his service to the prisoners for more than six months.
    (c) He was in prison for more than six months. (Ans)
    (d) He spent his time for recognition for more than six months.

    5. Hardly ...................................
    (a) I had started than it began to rain.
    (b) I had started when it began to rain.
    (c) had I started than it began to rain.
    (d) had I started when it began to rain. (Ans)

    6. That marriage won't last. I will give them two months ........ the outside.
    (a) on
    (b) at (Ans)
    (c) by
    (d) over

    7. I can see from your expression that you are thinking deep ......
    (a) thought
    (b) think
    (c) thinking cap
    (d) thoughts (Ans)

    Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the words

    8. Decrepit
    (a) lurid
    (b) dangerous
    (c) healthy
    (d) feeble (Ans)

    9. jettison
    (a) discard (Ans)
    (b) defeat
    (c) deduce
    (d) yield

    The antonyms of the following words

    10. doleful
    (a) melancholy
    (b) cheerful (Ans)
    (c) mournful
    (d) grim

    11. dovish
    (a) draconian
    (b) hawkish (Ans)
    (c) peevish
    (d) lavish

    12. The longer you keep this fruit, it will depreciate.
    (a) easier
    (b) much
    (c) the more (Ans)
    (d) the most
    SBI latest current affairs national international

    1. Consider the following statements about parliamentry standing committees :
    (a) Commonly known as miniparliament, these committees include numbers from all political parties and even independent MPs.
    (b) There are 31 members in each committee-21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
    (c) The Committees monitor the functioning of all major central ministries and. departments.
    Which of the above statements are true?
    (1) only (a) (2) Only (b)
    (3) only (c)
    (4) All of the above (Ans)

    2. Consider the following statements about Lok Pal Bill:
    (a) The submit their reports which are placed in both Houses of parliament.
    (b) The governmen t is not bound to accept these reports, but generally it does accept some of the suggestions.
    (c) The Lokpal Bill has been reffered to the parliamentary standing committee for personel public grievances, law and justice.
    (d) Headed by Rajya Sabha Congress MP, Abhishek Singhvi, it has three months to give it report.
    Which of the above statements are true?
    (1) only (a) and (b)
    (2) Only (b) and (c)
    (3) only (c) and (d)
    (4) All of the above (Ans)

    3. Recently in news Teesta water deal between—
    (1) India and Bangladesh (Ans)
    (2) India and Nepal *
    (3) India and Pakistan
    (4) India and China

    4. The central government on announced a 7% hike in the dearness allowance (DA) of its employees to give them relief from the near double-digit inflation ahead of the festival season.
    (1) 14 September, 2011
    (2) 15 September, 2011 (Ans)
    (3) 16 September, 2011
    (4) 17 September, 2011

    5. Who of the following is regarded as "Father of Employment Guarantee Scheme" and a postage stamp was released on his name by the President of India recently ?
    (1) K M M a d h e w
    (2) Kasu Brahmanand Reddy
    (3) Daulat Singh Kothari
    (4) Vitthal Sakharam Page (Ans)
  2. krishna

    krishna Banned

    1. Who has been appointed as Director General, National Human Rights Commission?

    (A) Dr. Ashok Sahu

    (B) Kanwalijit Deol

    (C) Krishna Kumar Shrivastava

    (D) Madhulata Sansi

    (E) None of these

    ANS. (B)

    2. Which state government has recently announced to set up Rural Administrative Service?

    (A) Bihar

    (B) West Bengal

    (C) Assam

    (D) Uttar Pradesh

    (E) None of these

    ANS. (C)

    3. Who is the Prime Minister of Belarus?

    (A) Ahmed Shafiq

    (B) David Cameron

    (C) Dr. Fakhruddin Ahmed

    (D) Mikhail Myasnikovich

    (E) None of these

    ANS. (D)

    4. The vice president M. Hamid Ansari presented the ‘’Moortidevi Award for 2010’’ to eminent Urdu scholar —– for his outstanding work ‘’ Urdu Ghazal aur Hindustani Zehan wa Tehzeeb’’.

    (A) Prof. Shahnaz Nabi

    (B) Prof. Gopi Chand Narag

    (C) Prof. Abdul Aleem

    (D) Prof. P.K. Abdul

    (E) Prof. S.R. Kidwai

    ANS. (B)

    5. National integration day is celebrated on——— to mark the birth anniversary of late Indira Gandhi, the 1st woman Prime Minister of India.

    (A) 09th November

    (B) 19th November

    (C) 29th November

    (D) 19th December

    (E) 29th December

    ANS. (B)

    6. Private final consumption Expenditure at current prices is estimated at Rs. —— crore in Q2 of 2012-13.

    (A) 13,31,582

    (B) 14,31,582

    (C) 15,31,582

    (D) 16,31,582

    (E) 17,31,582

    ANS. (A)

    7. Government final consumption expenditure at current prices is estimated at Rs. —– crore in Q2 of 2012-13.

    (A) 1,68,801

    (B) 2,68,801

    (C) 3,68,801

    (D) 4,68,801

    (E) 5,68,801

    ANS. (B)

    8. Who has been appointed as the BBC’s new Director General?

    (A) Karan Thapar

    (B) Jimmy Savile

    (C) George Entwistle

    (D) Tony Hall

    (E) None of these

    ANS. (D)

    9. In which city the world travel market-2012 was held?

    (A) Paris

    (B) London

    (C) New York

    (D) Berlin

    (E) None of these

    ANS. (B)

    10. Pranay Sahay has been appointed Director General, ——.

    (A) Assam Rifles

    (B) RPF

    (C) NCC

    (D) ITBP

    (E) CRPF

    ANS. (E)
  3. krishna

    krishna Banned

    Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.
    Number of Candidates Appeared, Qualified and Scheduled in a Competitive Examination from Five States Delhi, H.P, U.P, Punjab and Haryana Over the Years 1994 to 1998



    1. For which state the average number of candidates selected over the years is the maximum?
    A. Delhi
    B H.P
    C. U.P
    D. Punjab
    Answer: Option A

    Explanation:

    The average number of candidates selected over the given period for various states are:

    For Delhi = 94 + 48 + 82 + 90 + 70 /5 = 384 /5 = 76.8.


    For H.P. = 82 + 65 + 70 + 86 + 75 /5 = 378 /5 = 75.6.


    For U.P. = 78 + 85 + 48 + 70 + 80 /5 = 361 /5 = 72.2.


    For Punjab = 85 + 70 + 65 + 84 + 60 /5 = 364/5 = 72.8.


    For Haryana = 75 + 75 + 55 + 60 + 75 /5 = 340 /5 = 68.
    Clearly, this average is maximum for Delhi.

    2. The percentage of candidates qualified from Punjab over those appeared from Punjab is highestin the year?
    A. 1997
    B. 1998
    C. 1999
    D. 2000

    Option D

    Explanation:

    The percentages of candidates qualified from Punjab over those appeared from Punjab during different years are:

    For 1997 = ( 680 x 100 ) /8200 % = 8.29%.


    For 1998 = ( 600 x 100 ) 6800 % = 8.82%.


    For 1999 = ( 525 x 100 ) /6500 % = 8.08%.

    For 2000 = ( 720 x 100 ) /7800 % = 9.23%.


    For 2001 =( 485 x 100 ) /5700 % = 8.51%.

    Clearly, this percentage is highest for the year 2000.

    3. In the year 1997, which state had the lowest percentage of candidates selected over the candidates appeared?
    A. Delhi
    B. H.P
    C. U.P
    D. Punjab
    Answer: Option D

    Explanation:

    The percentages of candidates selected over the candidates appeared in 1997, for various states are:

    (i) For Delhi = ( 94 x 100 )/ 8000 % = 1.175%.


    (ii) For H.P. = ( 82x 100 )/ 7800 % = 1.051%.


    (iii) For U.P. =( 78 x 100 ) /7500 % = 1.040%.

    (iv) For Punjab(85 x 100 ) /8200 % = 1.037%.

    (v) For Haryana ( 75 x 100 )/6400 % = 1.172%.

    Clearly, this percentage is lowest for Punjab.

    4. The number of candidates selected from Haryana during the period under review is approximately what percent of the number selected from Delhi during this period?
    A. 79.5%
    B. 81%
    C.84.5%
    D. 88.5%
    Answer: Option D

    Explanation:

    Required percentage
    = [ (75 + 75 + 55 + 60 + 75)/(94 + 48 + 82 + 90 + 70) x 100 ] %

    = [ 340 x 100 ] /384%== 88.54%
    = 88.5%

    5. The percentage of candidates selected from U.P over those qualified from U.P is highest in the year?
    A. 1997
    B. 1998
    C. 1999
    D. 2001
    Answer: Option B

    Explanation:

    The percentages of candidates selected from U.P. over those qualified from U.P. during different years are:

    For 1997 = ( 78 x 100 ) /720% = 10.83%.

    For 1998 = ( 85 x 100 ) /620% = 13.71%.

    For 1999 = ( 48 x 100 ) /400 % = 12%.

    For 2000 = ( 70 x 100 ) /650% = 10.77%.

    For 2001 = (80 x 100 ) /950% = 8.42%.

    Clearly, this percentage is highest for the year 1998.
    1. Directions to Solve

    The following bar chart represents the GDP of different countries during the half decades 2001 - 2005 and 2006 - 2010. All figures are in Rs. billion.

    Which of the countries listed below accounts for the maximum GDP during the half decade 2006 to 2010 ?
    A. UAE
    B. US
    C. India
    D. China

    Answer: Option B
    Explanation:
    It's clear that US is the highest amongst the given options.


    2 The GDP of UAE is what fraction of GDP of the UK for the decade (approximately) ?
    A. (1/4)th
    B. (1/5)th
    C. (1/6)th
    D. Data inadequate
    Answer: Option B
    Explanation:
    (10/50) = 20% = (1/5)th

    3. Which of the countries listed below accounts for the highest GDP during the half decade 2001 to 2005 ?
    A. Russia
    B. China
    C. India
    D. UAE
    Answer: Option A
    Explanation:
    It's clear that Russia is the answer

    4. Out of every Rs. 10,000 spent during the decade 2001 - 2010 approximately how much was the GDP of Russia during the half decade 2001 - 2005 ?
    A. Rs. 700
    B. Rs. 1,400
    C. Rs. 2,800
    D. None of these
    Answer: Option D
    Explanation:Russia will account for 10 out of 125, i.e, 8% of the total, i.e, 800 out of 10,000 (approximately values based on visual interpretation).
    Study the following pie-chart and the table and answer the questions based on them.

    Proportion of Population of Seven Villages in 1997


    1. If the population of village R in 1997 is 32000, then what will be the population of village Y below poverty line in that year?
    A. 14100
    B.15600
    C. 16500
    D. 17000
    Answer: Option B
    Explanation:

    Population of village R = 32000 (given).

    Let the population of village Y be y.

    Then, 16 : 15 = 32000 : y=> y = ( 15 x 32000) /16 = 30000.
    Therefore Population of village Y below poverty line = 52% of 30000 = 15600.


    2 The ratio of population of village T below poverty line to that of village Z below poverty line in 1997 is:
    A. 11 : 23
    B. 13 : 11
    C. 23 : 11
    D. 11 : 13

    Answer: Option C

    Explanation:

    Let N be the total population of all the seven villages.

    Then, population of village T below poverty line = 46% of (21% of N)

    and Population of villages Z below the poverty line = 42% of (11% of N)

    Therefore Required ratio = 46% of (21% of N) = 46 x 21 = 22000.
    42% of (11 % of N) 42 x 11

    3. Find the population of village S if the population of village X below poverty line in 1997 is 12160.
    A. 18500
    B. 20500
    C. 22000
    D. 26000
    Answer: Option C

    Explanation:

    Let the population of village X be x.

    Then, 38% of x = 12160 => x = 12160 x 100 /38= 32000.
    Now, if s be the population of village S, then
    16 : 11 = 32000 : s => s = ( 11 x 3200 ) /16= 22000.

    4. If in 1998, the population of villages Y and V increase by 10% each and the percentage of population below poverty line remains unchanged for all the villages, then find the population of village V below poverty line in 1998, given that the population of village Y in 1997 was 30000.
    A. 11250
    B. 12760
    C. 13140
    D.13780
    Answer: Option B
    Explanation:
    Population of village Y in 1997 = 30000 (given).
    Let the population of village V in 1997 be v.
    Then, 15 : 10 = 30000 : v => v = 30000 x 10 /15= 20000.
    Now, population of village V in 1998 = 20000 + (10% of 20000) = 22000.
    Therefore Population of village V below poverty line in 1998 = 58% of 22000 = 12760.
  4. krishna

    krishna Banned

    Reasoning Ability
    Directions (Q. 1-5) In a certain code the symbol for 0 (zero) is • and that for 1 is *. There are no other symbols for numbers and all numbers greater than 1 are written using these two symbols only, the value of the symbol for 1 doubling itself every time it shifts one place to the left. Thus
    0 is written •
    1 is written *
    2 is written * •
    3 is written * *
    4 is written *•• and so on

    1. If *** is multiplied by **, the product will be
    (1) * • * • * (Ans)
    (2) * * • • *
    (3) * • • * *
    (4) • * * * *
    (5) * • • • *

    2. Which of the following will represent 20% of 45 in that code ?
    (1) * * * *
    (2) * * *
    (3) * • • * (Ans)
    (4) * * • *
    (5) * * * •

    3. Which of the following stands for 7 in that code ?
    (1) * * * * * * *
    (2) * • * • * • *
    (3) * * •
    (4) * • • *
    (5) * * * (Ans)

    4. If * * • is added to * • * *, the sum will be
    (1) * * * * *
    (2) * • • • * (Ans)
    (3) * * • • *
    (4) * • • * *
    (5) * * * • *

    5. Which of the following numbers is written as * •* • in that code?
    (1) 8080
    (2) 202
    (3) 42
    (4) 10 (Ans)
    (5) 9

    6. Four of the following five are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
    (1) Jasmine
    (2) Rose
    (3) Dahlia
    (4) Marigold
    (5) Lotus (Ans)

    7. ‘Jackal’ is related to ‘Carnivorous’ in the same way as ‘Goat is related to
    (1) Omnivorous
    (2) Carnivorous
    (3) Herbivorous (Ans)
    (4) Multivorous
    (5) None of these

    8. If blue is called red, red is called green ,green is called black and black is called white, what is he colour of grass ?
    (1) red
    (2) black (Ans)
    (3) white
    (4) green
    (5) None of these

    9. In a certain code RAID is written as % # * $, RIPE is written as % * @ ©. How is DEAR written in
    the code
    (1) @©#%
    (2) $@#%
    (3) @$#%
    (4) $©#% (Ans)
    (5) None of these

    10. ‘Radish’ is related to ‘Root’ in the same way as ‘Brinjal’ is related to
    (1) Fruit (Ans)
    (2) Stem
    (3) Flower
    (4) Root
    (5) None of these

    Directions (Q. 11-15) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
    Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
    Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
    Give answer (3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
    Give answer (4) if the data even in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
    Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and Ii together are necessary to answer the question.

    11. How many children are there in the group?
    I. Sangita has scored more marks than 12 children in the group.
    II. Reena has scored less than Sangita.
    (Ans. (4) Both the statements are not sufficient to give answer.)

    12. What is the value of 36$4*8 ?
    I. P$Q means divide P by Q.
    II. A*B means multiply A by B.
    (Ans. (5) From statements I and II,)

    13. What is Samir’s rank form the top in the class of 30 students?
    I. Sudhir, who is four ranks above Samir, is fifteenth in rank from the bottom.
    II. Samir is three ranks below Neeta who is eighteenth form the bottom.
    (Ans. (3) From statements I,)

    14. Who among L, N, F, G and Q was the first to reach the college ?
    I. F reached before L and G but not before Q who was not the first to reach.
    II. N reached before F and G and L reached after F.
    (Ans. (1) From statements I,)

    15. In the code language what is the code for ‘fat’ ?
    I. In the code language ‘she is fat’ is written as ‘he ra ca.’
    II. In the same code language ‘fat boy’ is written as ‘ra ka’.
    (Ans. (5) From statements I,)

    Directions (Q. 16-20) Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
    Mark answer (1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
    Mark answer (2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
    Mark answer (3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
    Mark answer (4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
    Mark answer (5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common causes.

    16. A. Large numbers of primary schools in the villages in the district are closed down this year.
    B. Severe draught situation gripped the state resulting into acute shortage of drinking water.
    (Ans. (4))

    17. A. Govt. has imposed a strict ban on use of plastic products are on the verge of closure.
    B. All the small scale units producing plastic products products are on the verge of closure.
    (Ans. (1))

    18. A. Police had launched a crackdown on all the criminal activities in the locality last month.
    B. There has been a significant decline in the cases of criminal activities in the locality.
    (Ans. (1))

    19. A. Large number of devotees visited the shrine on Saturday.
    B. Every Saturday special prayers are offered.
    (Ans. (2))

    20. A. The Village Panchayats in the state are empowered by the Gov.to settle cases of land disputes in the villages.
    B. There has been significant reduction in the number of criminal cases in the district court.
    (Ans. (4))

    Directions (Q. 21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
    Digit : 3 5 7 2 4 6 1 8 9
    Code: F K R L D T G H B
    Following conditions are to be applied:
    (i) If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as X.
    (ii) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, both are to be coded as A
    (iii) If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded as the code for last digit.
    (iv) If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as the code for the first digit.
    Applying above conditions you have to find out the correct code for the number in each question and indicate your answer accordingly. If none of the codes is correct,
    (5) ie. None of these is your answer.
    21. 364289
    (1) BTDLHB
    (2) FTDLHB
    (3) FTDLHF (Ans)
    (4) BTDLHF
    (5) None of these

    22. 521437
    (1) KLGDFK (Ans)
    (2) RLGDFR
    (3) KLGDFR
    (4) KLDGFK
    5) None of these

    23. 392648
    (1) ALBTDA
    (2) XBLTDA
    (3) XBLTDX
    (4) ABLTDA (Ans)
    (5) None of these

    24.279654
    (1) LRBTKD
    (2) LRBTKL
    (4) DRTBKD
    (5) None of these

    25.725638
    (1) ALKTFH
    (2) ALKTFA
    (3) XLKTFX
    (4) XLKTFH
    (5) None of these

    Directions (Q. 26-33) In the following questions the symbols @, #, $, % and & are used with different meanings as follows:
    ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
    ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
    ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
    ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
    ‘P & Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
    In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
    Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
    Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
    Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
    Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
    Give answer (5) it both conclusions I and II are true.

    26. Statements G # H, H $ K, K @ M
    Conclusions I. M # G
    II. G & M

    27. Statements F $ D, H # M, M % D
    Conclusions I. F $ H
    II. F @ H

    28. Statements R & M, M # L, L $ Q
    Conclusions I. M % Q
    II. M @ Q

    29. Statements F # R, Q $ R, Q & M
    Conclusions I. F # Q
    II. R & M

    30. Statements D & T, R # T, R $ M
    Conclusions I. M & T
    II. M % T
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    31. Statements E % H, H $ M, M # Q
    Conclusions I. H $ Q
    II. E $ M

    32. Statements S # A, S @ T, L & T
    Conclusions I. L & A
    II. S @ L

    33. Statements G $ J, J @ K, K % N
    Conclusions I. G @ N
    II. G % N

    Directions (Q. 34-40) These questions are based on the following arrangement of numerals, symbols and letters. W T D I 5 M K % L $ 3 7 F E B # 1 G H A © @ J U V 2 4
    34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately precede by a letter ?
    (1) BTDLHB
    (2) FTDLHB
    (3) FTDLHF (Ans)
    (4) BTDLHF
    (5) None of these

    35.If KL : $7, then B1 : ?
    (1) GA
    (2) H ©
    (3) GH
    (4) © J
    (5) None of these

    36If all the vowels are dropped from the arrangement, which element will be fifth to the right of the thirteenth element form the right?
    (1) H
    (2) G
    (3) A
    (4) 1
    (5) None of these

    37. If the first ten elements in the arrangement are reversed, which element will be third to the left of eleventh element from the left ?
    (1) D
    (2) %
    (3) K
    (4) I (
    5) None of these

    38.Four for the following five are alike in a certain way on the besis of their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
    (1) D5W
    (2) L3K
    (3) E#7
    (4) H ©
    (5) U2@
    39.How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement which are immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by a consonant?
    (1) None
    (2) One
    (3) Two (Ans)
    (4) Three
    (5) None of these

    40.Which element is exactly midway between the eighth element form the left and the tenth element from the right?
    (1) E
    (2) 7
    (3) B
    (4) #
    (5) None of these (Ans)

    Directions (Q.41-45) Given an input, a coding machine generates pass – codes for six batches every day as follows:

    Input : the shopkeeper offered discount to customers, Pass-code for
    Batch I : customer the shopkeeper offered discount to
    Batch II : customers discount the shopkeeper offered to
    Batch III : customers discount offered the shopkeeper to and so on until the arrangement is completed.
    After the arrangement is completed the next batch gets the same code as that for Batch I.
    Duration of each batch is 1 hour. There is a break of one hour after the fourth batch. Sixth batch is the last batch. Now answer the following questions:

    41.If the pass-code for the second batch is “do lean window out of not”, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?
    (1) do lean of not out window
    (2) do lean of out not window
    (3) do lean of not out window of
    (4) do lean of not of window out (Ans)
    (5) None of the above

    42If the input is “please do not delay the matter”, what will be the pass-code for third batch?
    (1) do please not delay the matter
    (2) delay do matter please not the
    (3) delay do matter not please the
    (4) delay do matter not the please
    (5) None of the above

    43.If the pass-code for third batch is “brisk every for morning go walk, what will definitely be the input?
    (1) morning brisk go walk for every
    (2) morning go brisk walk for every
    (3) morning go walk brisk for every
    (4) Cannot be determined (Ans)
    (5) None of the above

    44.If the pass-code for the second batch is “children for not is good watching television”, what will be the pass-code for the fifth batch?
    (1) children for good not is watching television
    (2) children for good is not watching television
    (3) children good for is not television watching
    (4) Cannot be determined
    (5) None of the above

    45.If the input is “necessary arrangements have already been made”, how many batches are required to complete the arrangement?
    (1) Three
    (2) Four
    (3) Five
    (4) Six
    (5) None of these

    Directions (Q. 46-50) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. An organization wants to recruit System Analysts. The following conditions apply.
    The candidate must
    (i) be an engineering graduate in Computer/IT with at least 60% marks.
    (ii) have working experience in the field of Computer at least for 2 years after acquiring the requisite qualification.
    (iii) have completed minimum 25 years and maximum 30 years of age as on 1.12.2005.
    (iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs. 50000.
    (v) Have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test. However, if a candidate fulfills all other r conditions except:
    (a) at (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
    (b) at (iv) above, but has an experience of at least 5 years as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP. In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2005. You have to indicate your decision by marking answer to each question as follows:

    Mark answer (1) if the case is to be referred to VP.
    Mark answer (2) if the case is to be referred to GM.
    Mark answer (3) if the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision.
    Mark answer (4) if the candidate is to be selected.
    Mark answer (5) if the candidate is not to be selected

    46.Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 years after completing engineering degree and has completed 27 years of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs.50000. (Ans. 4)

    47. Rakesh Rao is Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for past 6 years. He has secured 72% mark at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December 1976. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs.50000 (Ans.1)

    48. Ramkumar is an engineering graduate in Computer with 78% marks passed out in 1999 at the age of 23 years. Since then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn’t want to sign the bond for Rs. 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks. (Ans. 1)

    49. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June 2002 at the age of 22 years. Since then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond. (Ans. 3)

    50. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 years of age, She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks, She is willing to sign the bond. (Ans.5)
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    51. Sangita is an IT Engineer and is working as an EDP Officer in a bank for past 5 years. She has completed 28 years of age and is willing to sign the bond of Rs. 50000. She has obtained 65% marks in the selection test. (Ans. 3)

    52. Abhijit is a Computer Engineer with 65% marks passed out in 2001 at the age of 22 year. Since then he is working as a Software Engineer in a private firm. He is willing to sign the bond for the required amount. He has secured 63% marks in selection test. (Ans)

    53. Giridhar is working as a Software Engineer in a reputed company for past 4 years after completing Computer Engineering with 68% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 75% marks and is willing to sign the bond. His date of birth is 17th December, 1978.

    54. Nikita has just completed 26 years of age. She has passed IT engineering Examination in 2002 with 66% marks and is working as a Sr. Programmer since then. She has no problem in signing the bond of Rs. 50000. She has secured 53% marks in selection test.

    55. Mr. Rajan is working as a Programmer for the last 6 years in an engineering firm after passing Engineering Examination. He has passed Electronics Engineering with 76% marks. His date of birth is 16.05.78. He has cleared the selection test with 62% marks and is willing to sign the bond for Rs. 50000.

    Directions (Q. 56-57) Study the following information to answer these questions.
    Seven Professors A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in evaluation of answer papers in three different subjects English, Mathematics and History. At least two persons evaluate the papers in each subject. Each of the evaluators stay in different buildings P, Q, R, S, T, V and W not necessarily in the same order.
    A evaluates English papers only with E and stays in building R. D stays in building W and does not evaluate Maths papers. The one who stays in building V evaluates History papers. B and C do not evaluate the papers in the same subject. Those who evaluate English papers do not stay in building Q.F Stays in building P but does not evaluate History papers. G evaluates same papers as F.C stays in building T.
    56. Who stays in building V?
    (1) E
    (2) F
    (3) G
    (4) B (Ans)
    (5) None of these

    57. Which of the following combinations of subject, person and building is definitely correct?
    (1) Maths - F - Q
    (2) Maths - G - Q (Ans)
    (3) History - D - T
    (4) History - E - S
    (5) None of these

    58. Which of the following groups of persons evaluate the Mathematics paper?
    (1) CF
    (2) EFG
    (3) CFG (Ans)
    (4) FG
    (5) None of these

    59. Papers in which subject are evaluated by D?
    (1) History (Ans)
    (2) Maths
    (3) English
    (4) English or Mathematics
    (5) History or Mathematics

    60. E stay in which building ?
    (1) P
    (2) Q
    (3) T
    (4) Cannot be determined
    (5) None of these (Ans)

    Directions (Q. 61-65) In each question given below, use the following notations:
    A J B’ means ‘Add A to B’, ‘A | B’ means ‘Subtract B from A’, ‘A $ B’ means ‘Multiply A by B’, and ‘A @ B’ means ‘Divide A by B’.
    61. Profit percentage is computed by using the following method. Cost Price (C) is subtracted from the Sale Price (S) and the difference is multiplied by 100 and the product is then divided by Cost Price (C). Which of the following expressions indicates the profit percentage?
    (1) (C | S) $ 100 @ C
    (2) (S | C) $ 100 @ C
    (3) (S | C) @ 100 @ C
    (4) C | S $ 100 ] C
    (5) None of these

    62. IQ is worked out by dividing mental age (MA) of a person by his chronological age (CA) and the quotient so obtained is multiplied by 100. Which of the following expressions indicates the IQ of a person?

    (1) MA $ 100 @ CA
    (2) MA $ CA @ 100
    (3) CA $ MA ] 100
    (4) MA $ CA | 100
    (5) None of these

    64. The average salary of the Managers is computed by the following method.
    (i) The average salary (A) is multiplied by the Grand Number (GN)
    (ii) The average salary of other employee (AE) is multiplied by ;number of employees (N).
    (iii) (ii) is subtracted from (i), and
    (iv) the difference so obtained is divided by the number of Managers (NM)Which of the following expressions indicates the average salary of the Managers?
    (1) A $ GN | ( AE $ N @ NM)
    (2) A $ GN ] ( AE $ N @ NM)
    (3) GN | AE @ N @ NM
    (4) (GN $ A | AE $ N) @ NM
    (5) None of the above

    65. For earthquake relief fund, each employee of a company had contributed an amount equal to the total number of employees (N) in the company. To this amount was added the contribution made by 10 Directors, each of whom had paid Rs. 100 more than what each employee had paid. Which of the following expressions indicate the total contribution made by the company?
    Which of the following expressions indicates the average salary of the Managers?
    (1) N ] N $ 10 @ (N ] 100)
    (2) N $ N ] 10 $ (100 ] N)
    (3) N $ N @ 10 S (N | 100)
    (4) N $ N ] 10 $ (100 $ N)
    (5) None of the above

    Directions (Q. 66-) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
    Seven executive A, B, C, D, E, F and G from a company have to visit seven different place Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Jaipur to market their newly launched product. The order of persons and cities may not be necessarily the same. Each one flies by a different airline Spice jet, Kingfisher, Sahara, Jet, Air Deccan, Indian Airlines, Air India, not necessary in the same order.
    C goes to Kolkata but not by Sahara or Jet Airlines. D flies by Air India to Bengaluru. The one who goes to Jaipur does not travel by Air Deccan or Sahara. E travels by Air Deccan. A does not go to Ahmedabad. F travels to Hyderabad by Spice jet. B goes to Chennai by Kingfisher. E does not go to Ahmedabad. G does not go to Jaipur.

    66 Who travels by Sahara Airlines?
    (1) A
    (2) C
    (3) G
    (4) Cannot be determined
    (5) None of these

    67. Who goes to Jaipur?
    (1) A
    (2) B
    (3) G
    (4) D
    (5) None of these

    68. The one who travels by Air Deccan, visits which place?
    (1) Ahmedabad
    (2) Delhi
    (3) Chennai
    (4) Bengaluru
    (5) None of these

    Directions (Q. 6-9-75) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
    Input : day case 20 13 now for 49 56
    Step I : 13 day case 20 now for 49 56
    Step II : 13 now day case 20 for 49 56
    Step III : 13 now 20 day case for 49 56
    Step IV : 13 now 20 for day case 49 56
    Step V : 13 now 20 for 49 day case 56
    Step VI : 13 now 20 for 49 day 56 case and Step VI is the last step
    As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input
    69. Input : yes 21 far 32 17 12 wide goal
    Which of the following will be step V of the above input ?
    (1) 12 yes 21 wide 32 far 17 goal
    (2) 12 yes 21 wide far 32 17 goal
    (3) 12 yes 21 far 32 17 wide goal
    (4) There will be no such step
    (5) None of the above

    70. Step IV of an input is: 17 hotel 29 father 83 76 door eye. Which of the following will be Step VII?
    (1) 17 hotel 29 father 76 door 83 age
    (2) 17 hotel 29 father 76 age 83 door
    (3) 17 hotel 29 father 76 83 door age
    (4) There will be no such step
    (5) None of the above

    71. Step III of an input is: 25 with 32 85 73 tax break home. How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
    (1) Five
    (2) Four
    (3) Six
    (4) Seven
    (5) None of these

    72. Step III of an input is: 37 Yellow 42 61 53 violet green red. How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
    (1) 3
    (2) 4
    (3) 5
    (4) 6
    (5) None of these

    73. Input : can you go there 22 36 13 46 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
    (1) 7
    (2) 8
    (3) 6
    (4) 5
    (5) None of these

    74. Input : 42 36 go and come back 20 15 Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
    (1) IV
    (2) V
    (3) VII
    (4) VII
    (5) None of these

    75. Step II of an input is: 39 sure 72 63 height over 42 lamp. Which of the followings is definitely the input?
    (1) height 39 sure 72 63 over 42 lamp
    (2) 72 63 39 sure height over 42 lamp
    (3) 63 39 sure 72 height over 42 lamp
    (4) Cannot be determined
    (5) None of the above
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    Computer Knowledge



    1. Compiler is the
    (a) name given to the computer operator
    (b) part of the digital machine to store the information
    (c) translator of source program to object
    (d) part of arithmetic logic unit
    (e) operator of Boolean Algebra
    Ans (c)

    2. Main memory is
    (a) Random Access Memory
    (b) Read only Memory
    (c) Serial Access Memory
    (d) None of these
    Ans (a)

    3. Which of the following is the smallest and fastest computer imitating brain working?
    (a) Supercomputer
    (b) Quantum Computer
    (c) Param-10,000
    (d) IBM chips
    Ans (b)

    4. A compact disc (CD) is a data storage of the type
    (a) Magnetic
    (b) Optical
    (c) Electrical
    (d) Electromechanical
    Ans (a)

    5. Which of the following is not as language for computer programming?
    (a) WINDOWS
    (b) PASCAL
    (c) BASIC
    (d) COBOL
    Ans (a)
    6. What are the two basic types of memory that your computer uses?
    a) RAM
    (b) RW/RAM
    (c) ROM
    (d) ERAM
    Ans (a)

    7. The term gigabyte refers to
    (a) 1024 bytes
    (b) 1024 kilobytes
    (c) 1024 megabytes
    (d) 1024 gigabytes
    Ans (c)

    8. A computer with CPU speed around 100 million instructions per second & with the word length of around 64 bits is known as
    (a) Super computer
    (b) Mini computer
    (c) Micro computer
    (d) Micro computer
    Ans (a)

    9. What digits are representative of all binary numbers?
    (a) 0
    (b) 1
    (c) Both (a ) and (b)
    (d) 3
    Ans (c)

    10. To locate a data items for storage is
    (a) Field
    (b) Feed
    (c) Database
    (d) Fetch
    Ans (d)

    11. Off-line operation is the operation of devices without the control of
    (a) Memory
    (b) CPU
    (c) ALU
    (d) Control unit
    Ans (b)

    12. A type of line printer that uses an embossed steel band to form the letters printed on the paper is
    (a) Golf ball printer
    (b) Dot-matrix printer
    (c) Laser printer
    (d) Band printer
    Ans (d)

    13. A software used to convert source program instructions to object instruction is known as
    (a) Compiler
    (b) Assembler
    (c) Interpreter
    (d) Language processor

    14. The 'IC' chip, used in computers, is made of
    (a) Chromium
    (b) Iron oxide
    (c) Silica
    (d) Silicon
    Ans (d)

    15. Name the first general purpose electronic computer
    Ans : UNIVAC

    16. The size of commonly used Floppy disk is
    (a) 4.5?
    (b) 3.5?
    (c) 3.25?
    (d) 5.5?
    Ans (b)

    17. Which of the following statement is wrong
    (a) Windows XP is an operating system
    (b) Linux is owned and sold by Microsoft
    (c) Photoshop is a graphical design tool by Adobe
    (d) Linux is free and open source software
    Ans (b)

    18. Operating system of a computer
    (a) Enables the programmer to draw a flow chart
    (b) Links a program with subroutine with references
    (c) Provides a layer, user friendly interface
    (d) None of the above
    Ans (c)

    19. The term ?Operating System? means
    (a) A set of programs which control computer working
    (b) The way a user operates the computer system
    (c) Conversion of high level language to machine language
    (d) The way computer operator works
    Ans (a)

    20. Wild card operators specifies
    (a) can be used when writing into multiple files
    (b) allows several files to be read simultaneously
    (c) Provide an easy way of groups of related files
    (d) Are only used when printing the contents of a file
    Ans (c)

    21.Which one of the following is not a broadband communication medium
    (a) Microwave
    (b) Fibre optic cable
    (c) Twisted pair
    (d) Coaxial cable
    Ans (c)

    22.Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation
    (a) Coaxial cable
    (b) Satellite
    (c) Modem
    (d) Optical fibre
    Ans (c)

    23. Which one of the following is not an application software package
    (a) Redhat Linux
    (b) Microsoft Office
    (c) Adobe PageMaker
    (d) Open Office
    Ans (a)

    24. Who is the father of computer
    Ans : Charles Babbage

    25.The function of key F4 is
    Ans : To repeat the last action

    26.The function of key F4 is
    Ans : To repeat the last action

    27. The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called binary digits or .......
    (a) bytes
    (b) kilobytes
    (c) decimal bytes
    (d) bits
    Ans (D)

    28. A monitor's ...... is the distance between the holes in the mask behind the screen. This helps determine how sharp the dots appear.
    (a) refresh rate
    (b) dot pitch
    (c) resolution
    (d) colour depth
    Ans (B)

    29. A directly accessible appointment calendar is a feature of a ....... resident package.
    (a) CPU
    (b) memory
    (c) Buffer
    (d) ALU
    Ans (B)

    30. Perforated paper used as input or output media is known as
    (a) Paper tape
    (b) Magnetic tape
    (c) Punched paper tape
    (d) Card punch
    Ans (A)

    31. The invention of the slide rule is attributed to
    (a) Babbage
    (b) Oughtred
    (c) Pascal
    (d) Napier
    Ans (B)

    32. Which of the following is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage.
    (a) The access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of magnetic tape
    (b) Disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape
    (c) Disk storage is less expensive than tape storage
    (d) All of the above
    Ans (e)

    33. The memory sizes in mainframe computers and advanced technology micro computer are expressed as
    (a) Bytes
    (b) Kilo-bytes
    (c) Bits
    (d) Megabytes
    Ans (d)

    34. A prefix for billion which is equal to .... is called as billi.
    (a) 100
    (b) 10000
    (c) 1000
    (d) 10
    Ans d

    35. Each model of a computer has a unique
    (a) Assembly language
    (b) Machine language
    (c) High level language
    (d) All of the above
    Ans (b)

    36. One kilobyte = ____ byte.
    (a) 1250
    (b) 2088
    (c) 1024
    (d) 1000
    Ans (c)

    37. Which of the following circuit is used as a 'Memory device' in computers?
    (a) Rectifier
    (b) Flip-Flop
    (c) Comparator
    (d) Attenuator
    Ans (b)

    38. To move the cursor to the end of the document press
    Ans : Ctrl + End

    39. In Word Processing the red underline indicates
    Ans : Spelling mistakes

    40. The shortcut key to print documents is
    Ans : Ctrl + P

    41. First layer in the OSI reference model is
    (a) Data link
    (b) Network
    (c) Physical
    (d) Application
    Ans (c)
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    krishna Banned

    42. Viruses, Trojan horses and Worms are
    (a) able to harm computer system
    (b) unable to detect if affected on computer
    (c) user-friendly applications
    (d) harmless applications resident on computer
    Ans (a)

    43. Program threats are
    (a) Trap doors
    (b) Trojan horse
    (c) Both (a) & (b)
    (d) All of the above
    Ans (b)

    44. Failure of passwords security due to exposure can result from
    (a) Electronic monitoring
    (b) Visual
    (c) Both (a) & (b)
    (d) All of the above
    Ans (c)

    45. Data security threats include
    (a) Hardware failure
    (b) Privacy invasion
    (c) Fraudulent manipulation of data
    (d) All of the above
    Ans (b)

    46. The bar which displays information about the current page number is
    Ans : Status bar

    47. Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc. are
    (a) Task bar
    (b) Windows
    (c) Desktop
    (d) Icons
    Ans (d)

    48. Who invented the super-computer?
    (a) P.T Farnsworth
    (b) J.R Whinfield
    (c) J.H. Van Tassell
    (d) Charles Ginsberg
    Ans (c)

    49. Accessing records from a file directly without searching from the beginning of the file is
    (a) Time sharing
    (b) Random
    (c) Direct access
    (d) Access time
    (e) None of the above
    Ans (c)

    50. Time during which a job is processed by the computer is
    (a) Delay time
    (b) Real time
    (c) Execution time
    (d) Down time
    Ans (c

    51. This ......... tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
    (a)Client
    (b)Applications/Web server
    (c)Enterprise server
    (d)DBA
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Client

    52. A polymorphic virus:
    (a)modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file
    (b)is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains
    (c)a malicious logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program
    (d)infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program
    (e)None of these
    Ans. modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file

    53. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification :
    (a)is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Website is legitimate
    (b)provides private key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server
    (c)allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server
    (d)uses a public key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems

    54. ......... allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail:
    (a)TCP/IP
    (b)Ethernet
    (cWAP
    (d)Token ring
    (e)None of these
    Ans. WAP

    55. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have:
    (a)A Boot Record
    (b)A File Allocation Table
    (c)A Root Directory
    (d)Virtual Memory
    (e)BIOS
    Ans. Virtual Memory

    56. A passive threat to computer security is:
    (a)Malicious Intent
    (b)Sabotage
    (c)Accident Errors
    (d)Espionage Agents
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Malicious Intent

    57. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except:
    (a)each computer must have a network card
    (b)there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
    (c)there must be at least one connecting device
    (d)each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
    (e)None of these
    Ans. there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices

    58. 'MICR' technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to:
    (a)Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
    (b)Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
    (c)Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
    (d)Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

    59. All the information collected during database development is stored in a:
    (a)repository
    (b)data warehouse
    (c)RAD
    (d)CASE
    (e)None of these
    Ans. data warehouse

    60. The ......... component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
    (a)data extraction
    (b)end-user query tool
    (c)end-user presentation tool
    (d)data store
    (e)None of these
    Ans. end-user query tool


    61. A ......... allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server.
    (a)single user license agreement
    (b)network site license
    (c)end user license agreement
    (d)business software license
    (e)None of these
    Ans. network site license

    62. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is:
    (a)difficult or impossible and where line of sight transmission is unavailable
    (b)easy or promising and where line of sight transmission is unavailable
    (c)difficult or impossible and where line of sight transmission is available
    (d)easy or promising and where line of sight transmission is available
    (e)None of these
    Ans. easy or promising and where line of sight transmission is available

    63. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy?
    (a)Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open
    (b)Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files.
    (c)Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data.
    (d)Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters.
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters.

    64. The word FIP stands for:
    (a)File Translate Protocol
    (b)File Transit Protocol
    (c)File Typing Protocol
    (d)File Transfer Protocol
    (e)None of these
    Ans. File Translate Protocol

    65. Voice mail:
    (a)is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet
    (b)permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet
    (c)functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party
    (d)involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations
    (e)None of these
    Ans. functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party

    66. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is:
    (a)Bridge
    (b)Gateway
    (c)Router
    (d)Modem
    (e) All of these
    Ans. Gateway

    67. How is power supplied to a low power USB device?
    (a)Through a power cable
    (b)From an external power supply
    (c)Directly from the computer's power supply
    (d)Through the USB cable
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Through the USB cable

    68. RSA is:
    (a)Symmetric Cryptosystem
    (b)Asymmetric Cryptosystem
    (c)Block Cypher
    (d)Digital Signature
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Digital Signature

    69. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
    (a)The type of drivers that come with the mouse
    (b)The length of the mouse cord
    (c)The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
    (d)The number of buttons the mouse has
    (e)None of these
    Ans. The type of connector the mouse is equipped with

    70. The ......... data mining technique derives rules from real world case examples.
    (a)Rule discover
    (b)Signal processing
    (c)Neural nets
    (d)Case based reasoning
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Neural nets

    71. ......... are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
    (a)Cookies
    (b)Plugins
    (c)Scripts
    (d)ASPs
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Cookies

    72. A DVD-RAM is similar to a ......... except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.
    (a)CD-R
    (b)floppy disk
    (c)CD-RW
    (d)hard disk
    (e)None of these
    Ans. CD-RW

    73. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web?
    (a)VB Script
    (b)Java Script
    (c)CSS
    (d)Java
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Java Script

    74. Which one of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action?
    (a)Servlet Request
    (b)Http Servlet Request
    (c)Servlet Response
    (d)http Servlet Response
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Servlet Response

    75. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is:
    (a)Biometrics
    (b)Compression
    (c)Encryption
    (d)Ergonomics
    (e)None of these
    Ans. Encryption

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