HPCL Placement Paper on April 2013

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  1. HPCL Previous year Question paper for Chemical Engineerin



    1. Dilute sulfuric acid is handled in vessels made of: (GATE-1989-9.i.a)
    (a) Stainless steel
    (b) Brass
    (c) Lead
    (d) Cast iron
    Ans:c

    2 ACSR (Aluminium Conductor Steel Reinforced) are used as
    (A) over head transmission lines.
    (B) super conductors.
    (C) fuse
    (D) underground cables.
    Ans: A

    2. At steady state, the temperature variation in a plane wall, made of two different solids
    I and II is shown below:

    figure

    Then, the thermal conductivity of material I
    (a) is smaller than that of II
    (b) is greater than that of II
    (c) is equal to that of II
    (d) can be greater than or smaller than that of II
    Ans:A

    3.Brass is an alloy of
    (A) copper and zinc.
    (B) copper and iron.
    (C) copper and Aluminum.
    (D) copper and tin.
    Ans: A

    4. A gaseous reaction A ! 2B+C takes place isothermally in a constant pressure reactor. Starting with a gaseous mixture containing 50% A (rest inerts), the ratio of final to initial volume is found to be 1.6. The percentage conversion of A is (GATE-1992-2.c)
    (a) 30
    (b) 50
    (c) 60
    (d) 74
    Ans:C

    5.Property of material which allows it to be drawn out into wires is
    (A) Ductility.
    (B) Solder ability.
    (C) Super conductivity.
    (D) Malleability.
    Ans: A

    6.In n type semi conductor added impurity is
    (A) pentavalent.
    (B) divalent.
    (C) tetravalent.
    (D) trivalent.
    Ans: A

    7.Air enters an adiabatic compressor at 300 K. The exit temperature for a compression ratio of 3, assuming air to be an ideal gas ( = CP /CV = 7/5) and the process to be reversible, is
    (A) 300(3 2/7)
    (B) 300(3 3/5)
    (C) 300(3 3/7)
    (D) 300(3 5/7)
    Answer: (a) For reversible adiabatic process PV = constant.

    8.Phenol and Formaldehyde are polymerised to a resultant product known as
    (A) PVC.
    (B) bakelite.
    (C) polyester.
    (D) teflon.
    Ans: B

    9.The percentage of carbon in mild steel is
    (A) 0.08 to 0.3 %
    (B) 0.5 to 1.4 %
    (D) 2.35 %
    (D) 0.5 %
    Ans: A

    10. A rotameter, through which air at room temperature and atmospheric pressure is flowing, gives a certain reading for a flow rate of 100 cc/s. If helium (Molecular weight 4) is used and the rotameter shows the same reading, the flow rate is (GATE-1996-2.02)
    (A) 26 cc/s
    (B) 42 cc/s
    (C) 269 cc/s
    (D) 325 cc/s
    Answer: (C)

    11.Crystal size in a continuous crystalliser depends upon the
    A. rate of heat transfer.
    B. degree of turbulence.
    C. degree of supersaturation.
    D. all (a), (b) and (c).
    Ans:D

    12.When vaporisation takes place directly at the heating surface, it is called
    A. film boiling
    B. nucleate boiling
    C. vapour binding
    D. none of these
    Ans:B

    13.Fourier's law applies to the heat transfer by
    A. convection
    B. radiation
    C. conduction
    D. all (a), (b) & (c)
    Ans:C

    14.Convective heat transfer co-efficient in case of fluid flowing in tubes is not affected by the tube length/diameter ratio, if the flow is in the __________ zone.
    A.laminar
    B.transition
    C.both 'a' & 'b'
    D. highly turbulent
    Ans:D

    15.In a solution containing 0.30 Kg mole of solute and 600 kg of solvent, the molality is
    A. 0.50
    B. 0.60
    C. 2
    D. 1
    Ans:A

    16.In batch distillation with constant reflux, overhead product composition __________ with time.
    A.increases
    B.decreases
    C.does not vary
    D.may increase on decrease, depends on the system
    Ans:B

    17.Which of the following plays an important role in problems of simultaneous heat and mass transfer ?
    A. Lewis number
    B. Schmidt number
    C.Prandtl number
    D.Sherwood number

    18.Which of the following process sequences is correct for melt blown process?

    A)preparation, extrusion, quenching, attenuation, lay-down, winding.
    B)preparation, extrusion, drawing, attenuation, lay-down, winding.
    C)preparation, extrusion, quenching, lay-down, attenuation, winding.
    D)preparation, quenching, extrusion, attenuation, lay-down, winding

    19.Which of the following bonding methods is generally following in spunbond process?

    A)Needlepunching
    B)Thermal calendar bonding
    C)Chemical bonding
    D)Hydroentanglement

    20. Which of the following polymers is least likely to be optically transparent
    A. Atactic polystyrene
    B. Isotactic polystyrene
    C. An ethylene/propylene random copolymer (50/50 composition)
    D. A styrene/butadiene random copolymer

    21.Styrene is almost a unique monomer, in that it can be polymerized by practically all methods
    of chain polymerization.
    A. Free radical
    B. Anionic
    C. Cationic
    D. Co-ordination (i.e., with a catalyst)

    22.What method would you use to synthesize a triblock copolymer?
    A) Free radical polymerization
    B) Anionic polymerization
    C) Using a Ziegler Natta catalyst
    D) By putting it into a bloody great pot and spitting on it to initiate polymerization
    E) Condensation polymerization

    23.In emulsion polymerization, the principal place where the monomer polymerizes is
    A) Monomer droplets
    B) Aqueous phase
    C) Surfactant micelles
    D) Surface of reactor
    E) Air-liquid interface

    24.Polypropylene produced commercially using a Ziegler-Natta catalyst is predominantly
    A) Atactic
    B) Isotactic
    C) Syndiotactic

    25.Which pairs of monomers would you use to make an ethylene/propylene random copolymer?

    26.The Tromsdorff effect is
    A. When the Swedish Bikini team drops from the sky with cases of Old Milwaukee beer.
    B. When the rate of initiation increases as the nature of the polymerization mass (i.e. all the stuff in the pot) changes from the initial conditions
    C. When the rate constant for propagation, kp, increases due to an increase in viscosity of the reaction mass
    D. When the rate constant for termination decreases due to the same increase in viscosity.

    27.The pressure of 20g of an ideal monatomic gas is tripled while the volume is halved. What happens tot he internal energy?

    a)It stays the same
    b) Increases
    c) Decreases
    d)Indeterminate

    28.Area on a p-v diagram has units associated with

    a) energy,
    b) momentum
    c) temperature
    d) change in temp

    29) The Pressure inside a commercial airliner is maintained at 1 atm(10^5 Pa). What is the net outward force exerted on a 1m x 2m cabin door if outside pressure is equal to .30 atm?

    a)140,

    b) 1,400,

    c) 14,000

    d) 140,000

    30.A system acted on by surroundings receives 50J of heat while doing 20J of work. What is the net change of internal energy?

    a) 70

    b) 30

    c) 0

    d) -30
  2. HPCL computer engineering questions with answers
    1. Which layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment?

    Switch
    NIC
    Hub
    Repeater
    RJ45 transceiver
    A.1 only
    B.1 and 3
    C.3 and 4
    D.5 only
    Answer: Option D
    Not that you really want to enlarge a single collision domain, but a hub (multiport repeater) will provide this for you.


    2. Routers operate at layer _____. LAN switches operate at layer _____. Ethernet hubs operate at layer _____. Word processing operates at layer _____.
    A.3, 3, 1, 7
    B.3, 2, 1, none
    C.3, 2, 1, 7
    D.3, 3, 2, none

    Answer: Option E
    Explanation:
    Routers operate at layer 3. LAN switches operate at layer 2. Ethernet hubs operate at layer 1. Word processing applications communicate to the Application layer interface,
    but do not operate at layer 7, so the answer would be none.


    3. Which of the following describe router functions?
    A.Packet switching
    B.Packet filtering
    C.Internetwork communication
    D.Path selection
    E.All of the above
    Answer: Option E
    Explanation:
    Routers provide packet switching, packet filtering, internetwork communication, and path selection.


    4. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model?It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components,
    thus aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting.
    It enables equipment from different vendors to use the same electronic components, thus saving research and development funds.
    It supports the evolution of multiple competing standards and thus provides business opportunities for equipment manufacturers.
    It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model.
    A.1 only
    B.1 and 4
    C.2 and 3
    D.3 only

    Answer: Option A
    Explanation:
    The main advantage of a layered model is that it can allow application developers to change aspects of a program in just one layer of the layer model's specifications. Advantages of using the OSI layered model include, but are not limited to, the following:
    It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding compo- nent development, design, and troubleshooting;
    it allows multiple-vendor development through standardization of network components;
    it encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model;
    it allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate;
    and it prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers, so it does not hamper development.


    5. A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
    A.Send a different source port number.
    B.Restart the virtual circuit.
    C.Decrease the sequence number.
    D.Decrease the window size.

    Answer: Option E
    Explanation:
    A receiving host can control the transmitter by using flow control (TCP uses Windowing by default). By decreasing the window size, the receiving host can slow down the transmitting host so the receiving host does not overflow its buffers.

    7. What is the purpose of flow control?
    A.To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received.
    B.To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
    C.To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
    D.To regulate the size of each segment.
    Answer: Option A
    Explanation:
    Flow control allows the receiving device to control the transmitter so the receiving device's buffer does not overflow.



    8. Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network?There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
    A.1, 2, and 5
    B.2 and 4
    C.2, 3 and 4
    D.5 only

    Answer: Option D
    Explanation:
    Full-duplex means you are using both wire pairs simultaneously to send and receive data. You must have a dedicated switch port for each node, which means you will not have collisions. Both the host network card and the switch port must be capable and set to work in full-duplex mode.


    9. Which of the following are types of flow control?Buffering
    Cut-through
    Windowing
    Congestion avoidance
    A.1 and 2
    B.1, 3 and 4
    C.2 only
    D.3 only
    The common types of flow control are buffering, windowing, and congestion avoidance.

    10. What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge?To add more broadcast domains.
    To create more collision domains.
    To add more bandwidth for users.
    To allow more broadcasts for users.
    A.1 only
    B.2 and 3
    C.2 and 4
    D.4 only

    Answer: Option C
    Explanation:
    Bridges break up collision domains, which allow more bandwidth for users.


    11. How does a host on an Ethernet LAN know when to transmit after a collision has occurred?In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
    In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.You can improve the CSMA/CD network by adding more hubs.After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
    A.1 and 3
    B.2 and 4
    C.1,3 and 4
    D.2 and 5

    Answer: Option C
    Explanation:
    Once transmitting stations on an Ethernet segment hear a collision, they send an extended jam signal to ensure that all stations recognize the collision. After the jamming is complete, each sender waits a predetermined amount of time, plus a random time. After both timers expire, they are free to transmit, but they must make sure the media is clear before transmitting and that they all have equal priority.



    12. Which of the following types of connections can use full duplex?
    Hub to hub
    Switch to switch
    Host to host
    Switch to hub
    Switch to host
    A.1, 2 and 4
    B.3 and 4
    C.3 and 5
    D.2, 3 and 5

    Answer: Option A
    Explanation:
    Hubs cannot run full-duplex Ethernet. Full duplex must be used on a point-to-point connection between two devices capable of running full duplex. Switches and hosts can run full duplex between each other, but a hub can never run full duplex.


    13. Acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer?
    A.Layer 2
    B.Layer 3
    C.Layer 4
    D.Layer 7
    Answer: Option D
    Explanation:
    A reliable Transport layer connection uses acknowledgments to make sure all data is transmitted and received reliably. A reliable connection is defined by a virtual circuit that uses acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control, which are characteristics of the Transport layer (layer 4).


    14. Which fields are contained within an IEEE Ethernet frame header?Source and destination MAC address Source and destination network address Source and destination MAC address and source and destination network address FCS field

    A. 1 and 4
    B.2 only
    C.2 and 3 only
    D. 3 only

    Answer: Option C
    Explanation:
    An Ethernet frame has source and destination MAC addresses, an Ether-Type field to identify the Network layer protocol, the data, and the FCS field that holds the answer to the CRC.



    15. What type of RJ45 UTP cable do you use to connect a PC's COM port to a router or switch console port?
    A.Straight-through
    B.Crossover cable
    C.Crossover with a CSU/DSU
    D.Rolled
    Answer: Option B

    To connect to a router or switch console port, you would use an RJ45 UTP rolled cable.


    16. How to implement a network medium that is not susceptible to EMI. Which type of cabling should you use?
    A.Thicknet coax
    B.Thinnet coax
    C.Category 5 UTP cable
    D.Fiber-optic cable
    Answer: Option D
    Explanation:
    Fiber-optic cable provides a more secure, long-distance cable that is not susceptible to EMI interference at high speeds.


    17. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?
    A.Physical
    B.Data Link
    C.Network
    D.Transport
    Answer: Option D
    Explanation:
    The Transport layer receives large data streams from the upper layers and breaks these up into smaller pieces called segments.


    18. When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order?
    A.Data, frame, packet, segment, bit
    B.Segment, data, packet, frame, bit
    C.Data, segment, packet, frame, bit
    D.Data, segment, frame, packet, bit
    Answer: Option E
    Explanation:
    The encapsulation method is data, segment, packet, frame, bit.


    19. Which of the following are unique characteristics of half-duplex Ethernet when compared to full-duplex Ethernet?Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain.
    Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a private collision domain.
    Half-duplex Ethernet has higher effective throughput.
    Half-duplex Ethernet has lower effective throughput.
    A.2 only
    B.1,2 and 3
    C.1 and 4
    D.4 only
    Answer: Option B
    Explanation:
    Unlike full duplex, half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain, and it has a lower effective throughput than full duplex.


    20. What type of RJ45 UTP cable is used between switches?
    A.Straight-through
    B.Crossover cable
    C.Crossover with a CSU/DSU
    D.Crossover with a router in between the two switches
    Answer: Option A
    Explanation:
    To connect two switches together, you would use a RJ45 UTP crossover cable.
  3. HPCL ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
    HPCL PART - I TYPICAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

    Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is
    (A) conductively linked.
    (B) inductively linked.
    (C) not linked at all.
    (D) electrically linked.
    Ans : B

    Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor will
    (A) come to stop.
    (B) continue to run at synchronous speed.
    (C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
    (D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.
    Ans: B

    Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
    (A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
    (B) it will fail to start.
    (C) it will not develop high starting torque.
    (D) all are true.
    Ans: A

    Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about
    (A) 50 Hz.
    (B) 20 Hz.
    (C) 2 Hz.
    (D) Zero.
    Ans: C

    Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement
    (A) can be precisely controlled.
    (B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
    (C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
    (D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.
    Ans: A

    Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
    (A) low at light load only.
    (B) low at heavy load only.
    (C) low at light and heavy load both.
    (D) low at rated load only.
    Ans: A

    Q.7 The generation voltage is usually
    (A) between 11 KV and 33 KV.
    (B) between 132 KV and 400 KV.
    (C) between 400 KV and 700 KV.
    (D) None of the above.
    Ans: A

    Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
    (A) damping torque.
    (B) eddy current torque.
    (C) torque aiding the developed torque.
    (D) no torque.
    Ans: D

    Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be
    (A) A square wave.
    (B) A sine wave.
    (C) A triangular wave.
    (D) A pulse wave.
    Ans: A

    Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to
    (A)1a

    (B)12a-Answer

    (C)1/1a

    (D)1/12a
    Ans: B
    Q.11 In a 3 ā€“ phase induction motor running at slip ā€˜sā€™ the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power Pg is
    (A)(s-1)Pg

    (B)Pg/1-S

    (C)1-SPg-Answer

    (D)S.Pg.


    In a 3 ā€“ phase induction motor the maximum torque
    (A) is proportional to rotor resistance
    (B) does not depend on
    (C) is proportional to
    (D) is proportional to

    Q.13In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is
    (A) stationary w.r.t. armature.
    (B) rotating w.r.t. field.
    (C) stationary w.r.t. field.
    (D) rotating w.r.t. brushes.
    Ans: C

    Q.14In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
    (A) unity p.f.
    (B) leading p.f.
    (C) lagging p.f.
    (D) zero p.f. leading.
    Ans: B

    Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of

    Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be
    (A) 3.6 V.
    (B) 2.5 V.
    (C) 3.0 V.
    (D) 6.0 V.
    Ans: C

    Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer
    (A) is in phase with the flux.
    (B) lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
    (C) leads the flux by 90 degree.
    (D) is in phase opposition to that of flux.
    Ans: C

    Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a
    (A) dc machine.
    (B) 3 phase induction machine.
    (C) synchronous machine.
    (D) single phase induction machine.
    Ans: all options are correct

    Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through
    (A) slip rings.
    (B) commutator segments.
    (C) solid connections.
    (D) carbon brushes.
    Ans: C

    Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the
    (A) squirrel cage induction motor.
    (B) wound rotor induction motor.
    (C) synchronous motor.
    (D) DC shunt motor.
    Ans: C


    Q.21 A hysteresis motor
    (A) is not a self-starting motor.
    (B) is a constant speed motor.
    (C) needs dc excitation.
    (D) can not be run in reverse speed.
    Ans: B

    Q.22
    The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
    (A) a dc series motor.
    (B) a dc shunt motor.
    (C) an ac two-phase induction motor.
    (D) an ac series motor.
    Ans: B

    Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the
    (A) operating voltage.
    (B) power factor.
    (C) current to be carried.
    (D) type of insulation used.
    Ans: C

    Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is
    (A) electric arc heating
    (B) induction heating
    (C) electric resistance heating
    (D) dielectric heating
    Ans: C
    Q.25

    A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load and unity power-factor. At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be
    (A) 4.5%.
    (B) less than 4.5%.
    (C) more than 4.5%.
    (D) 4.5% or more than 4.5%.
    Ans: C

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