GATE Placement-Paper on Sep 19, 2013

Discussion in 'Latest Placement papers' started by krishna, Oct 19, 2013.

  1. krishna

    krishna Banned

    GATE 2013 years solved questions of Computer Science CS GATE-2013 Solved paper

    1 Consider a hard disk with 16 recording surfaces(0-15)having 16384 cylinders (0-16383)and each cylinder cont ains 64 sectors (0-63). Data storage capacity in each sector is 512 bytes.
    Data are organized cylinder–wise and the addressing format is <cylinder no., sector no.>. A fi le of size 42797 KB is stored in the diskand the starting disk location of th e file is <1200, 9, 40>. What is the cylinder number of the last sector of the file, if it is stored in a contiguous us manner?

    (A) 1281
    (B) 1282
    (C) 1283
    (D) 1284
    Ans: (D)


    2 Consider er the following sequence of micro–operations
    MBR-PC
    MAR-X
    PC-Y
    Memory-MBR

    3 Which one of the following is a possible operation performed by this sequence?
    (A) Instruction fetch
    (B) Operand fetch
    (C) Conditional branch
    (D) Initiation of interrupt service
    Ans: (D)

    Exp: PC content is stored i n memory y via MBR and PC gets new address from Y. It represents a function call (routine), which is matching with interrupt service initiation

    4 The line graph L(G) of a simple graph G is defined as follows:
    •There is exactly one vertex v(e) in L(G) for each edge e in G.
    •For any two edges e and e in G, L(G) has an edge between v(e) and v(e ), if and only i f e and e are incident with the same vertex in G.Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
    (P) The line graph of a cycle is a cycle.
    (Q) The line graph of a clique is a clique.
    (R) The line graph of a planar graph is planar.
    (S) The line graph of a tree is a tree.
    (A) P only (B) P and R only (C) R only
    (D) P, Q and S only
    Ans: (B)

    5 Suppose the instruction set architecture of the processor has only two registers. The only allowed compiler optimization is code motion, which moves statements from one place to another while preserving correctness. What is the minimum number of spills to memory in the compiled code?
    (A) 0
    (B) 1
    (C) 2
    (D) 3
    Ans: (C)

    6 What is the minimum number of registers needed in the instruction set architecture of the processor to compile this code segment without any spill to memory? Do not apply any optimization other than optimizing register allocation
    (A) 3
    (B) 4
    (C) 5
    (D) 6
    Ans: (B)

    7 Complete the sentence:
    Universalism is to pa rti cularism as diffuseness is to
    (A) specificity
    (B) neutrali ty
    (C) generality
    (D) adapt ation
    Ans: (A)
    The relation is that of antonyms

    8. Were you a bird, you in the sky.
    (A) would fly
    (B) shall fly
    (C) should fl y
    (D) shall have flown
    Ans: (A)

    9 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
    Nadir
    (A) Highest
    (B) Lowest
    (C) Medium
    (D) Integ ration
    Ans: (B)
    Nadir in the lowest point on a curve

    10. Choose the grammatically INCORRECT sentence:
    (A) He is of Asian origin
    (B) They b belonged to Afri ca
    (C) She is an Euro pean
    (D) They migrated from India to Australia
    Ans: (C)

    11. What will be the maximum sum of 44, 42, 40, ... ?
    (A) 502
    (B) 504
    (C) 506
    (D) 500
    Ans: (C)

    12 Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and 100, a 2-digit number has to be selected at random. What is the prob ability that the selected numb er is not divisible by 7?
    (A) 13/90
    (B) 12/90
    (C) 78/90
    (D) 77/90
    Ans: (D)
  2. krishna

    krishna Banned

    GATE 2014 Information Technology Model questions with answers

    1 In a population of N families, 50% of the families have three children, 30% of the families have two children and the remaining families have one child. What is the probability that a randomly picked child belongs to a family with two children?
    A) 3/23
    B) 6/23
    C) 3/10
    D) 3/5
    Answer : (B)

    2 Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process ?
    A) Stack
    B) Address Space
    C) File Descriptor Table
    D) Message Queue
    Answer : (A)

    3 A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
    A) 14.
    B) 30
    C) 62
    D) 126
    Answer : (C)

    4 A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the following does the organization need to practice beside Process Change Management and Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5 ?
    A) Defect Detection
    B) Defect Prevention
    C) Defect Isolation
    D) Defect Propagation
    Answer : (B)
    5 Suppose that two parties A and B wish to setup a common secret key (D-H key) between themselves using the Diffle-Hellman key exchange technique. They agree on 7 as the modulus and 3 as the primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and party B chooses 5 as their respective secrets. Their D-H key is
    A) 3
    B) 4
    C) 5
    D) 6
    Answer : (C)

    6 We have two designs D1 and D2 for a synchronous pipeline processor. D1 has 5 pipeline stages with execution times of 3 nsec, 2 nsec, 4 nsec, 2 nsec and 3 nsec while the design D2 has 8 pipeline stages each with 2 nsec execution time. How much time can be saved using design D2 over design D1 for executing 100 instructions?
    A) 214 nsec
    B) 202 nsec
    C) 86 nsec
    D) -200 nsec
    Answer : (A)

    7 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a bridge
    A) Bridge is a layer 2 device
    B) Bridge reduces collision domain
    C) Bridge is used to connect two or more LAN segments
    D) Bridge reduces broadcast domain
    Answer : (D)

    8 What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures?
    Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days
    Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours
    A) 1%
    B) 24%
    C) 99%
    D) 99.009%
    Answer : (B)

    9 In a particular Unix OS, each data block is of size 1024 bytes, each node has 10 direct data block addresses and three additional addresses: one for single indirect block, one for double indirect block and one for triple indirect block. Also, each block can contain addresses for 128 blocks. Which one of the following is approximately the maximum size of a file in the file system?
    A) 512 MB
    B) 2 GB
    C) 8 GB
    D) 16 GB
    Answer : (D)

    10 On a TCP connection, current congestion window size is Congestion Window = 4 KB. The window size advertised by the receiver is Advertise Window = 6 KB. The last byte sent by the sender is LastByteSent = 10240 and the last byte acknowledged by the receiver is LastByteAcked = 8192. The current window size at the sender is
    A) 2048 bytes
    B) 4096 bytes
    C) 6144 bytes
    D) 8192 bytes
    Answer : (B)

    11 Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD
    A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol
    B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
    C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network
    D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network
    Answer : (C)

    12 How many pulses are needed to change the contents of a 8-bit upcounter from 10101100 to 00100111 (rightmost bit is the LSB)?
    A) 134
    B) 133
    C) 124
    D) 123
    Answer : (B)

    13 A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
    A) 14
    B) 30
    C) 62
    D) 126
    Answer : (C)

    14 Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process ?
    A) Stack
    B) Address Space
    C) File Descriptor Table
    D) Message Queue
    Answer : (A)

    15 Let G be a weighted undirected graph and e be an edge with maximum weight in G. Suppose there is a minimum weight spanning tree in G containing the edge e. Which of the following statements is always TRUE?
    A) There exists a cutset in G having all edges of maximum weight.
    B) There exists a cycle in G having all edges of maximum weight.
    C) Edge e cannot be contained in a cycle.
    D) All edges in G have the same weight.
    Answer : (C)

    16 A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the following does the organization need to practice beside Process Change Management and Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5 ?
    A) Defect Detection
    B) Defect Prevention
    C) Defect Isolation
    D) Defect Propagation
    Answer : (B)

    17 Suppose that two parties A and B wish to setup a common secret key (D-H key) between themselves using the Diffle-Hellman key exchange technique. They agree on 7 as the modulus and 3 as the primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and party B chooses 5 as their respective secrets. Their D-H key is
    A) 3
    B) 4
    C) 5
    D) 6
    Answer : (C)

    18 Consider the following message M = 1010001101. The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for this message using the divisor polynomial x5 + x4 + x2 + 1 is :
    A) 01110
    B) 01011
    C) 10101
    D) 10110
    Answer : (C)

    19 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a bridge
    A) Bridge is a layer 2 device
    B) Bridge reduces collision domain
    C) Bridge is used to connect two or more LAN segments
    D) Bridge reduces broadcast domain
    Answer : (D)

    20 What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures?
    Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days
    Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours
    A) 1%
    B) 24%
    C) 99%
    D) 99.009%
    Answer : (B)

    21 A channel has a bit rate of 4 kbps and one-way propagation delay of 20 ms. The channel uses stop and wait protocol. The transmission time of the acknowledgement frame is negligible. To get a channel efficiency of at least 50%, the minimum frame size should be
    A) 80 bytes
    B) 80 bits
    C) 160 bytes
    D) 160 bits
    Answer : (D)

    22 In a depth-first traversal of a graph G with n vertices, k edges are marked as tree edges. The number of connected components in G is
    A) k
    B) k+1
    C) n-k-l
    D) n-k
    Answer : (C)

    23 Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD
    A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol
    B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
    C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network
    D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network
    Answer : (C)

    24 Which one of the following regular expressions is NOT equivalent to the regular expression (a + b + c)* ?
    A) (a* + b* + c*)*
    B) (a*b*c*)*
    C) ((ab)* + c*)*
    D) (a*b* + c*)*
    Answer : (C)
  3. krishna

    krishna Banned

    Sep 18, 2013

    Sample Papers
    Q.1 In corn there are 10 chromosomes per set and the species is diploid. A karyotype was performed from the endosperm cells grown in tissue culture in a medium containing colchicine. What is the total number of chromosomes in an endosperm cell after the first round of cell divisions?


    (a) 5
    (b) 14
    (c) 15
    (d) 30


    Q.2 Three of the four eukaryotic rRNAs are synthesized from a single transcription unit consisting of the rDNA. Which one of the following does NOT belong to this group?

    (a) 5.8S
    (b) 5S
    (c) 18S
    (d) 28S


    Q.3 When ß-[32 P]-ATP is incubated in an eukaryotic cell extract that is capable of transcription and RNA processing where does the label appear in the m-RNA?

    (a) Every phosphate group of the m RNA is labelled
    (b) Only the 5-end of the m RNA is labelled provided the first base is A
    (c) Only the 3-end of the m-RNA is labelled provided the last base is A
    (d) The label does not appear at all in m-RNA


    Q.4 Which particle converts cholesterol to cholesterol esters?

    (a) LDL
    (b) Chylomicrons
    (c) VLDL
    (d) HDL


    Q.5 A patient presents with lethargy and a 10-fold increase in plasma ammonia and glutamine levels due to a defect in the urea cycle. The build-up of what other metabolite in the plasma is consistent with a defect in ornithine transcarbamoylase and not carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I?

    (a) Urea
    (b) Arginine
    (c) Ornithine
    (d) Citrulline


    Q.6 Tay-Sachs Disease, characterized by intralysosomal accumulation of the GM2 ganglioside, results from a deficiency in

    (a) Sphingomyelinase.
    (b) Galactocerebrosidase.
    (c) Glucocerebrosidase.
    (d) Hexosaminidase A.


    Q.7 Which of the following assays is currently being used for the detection of Helicobacter pylori?

    (a) Agglutination
    (b) Complement fixation
    (c) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
    (d) Immunodiffusion


    Q.8 An individual was found to be heterolo-gous for IgG1 allotypes 3 and 12. The different possible IgG1 antibodies produced by this individual will never have

    (a) Two H chains of allotype 12
    (b) Two L chains of either Κ or Λ
    (c) Two H chains of allotype 3
    (d) Two H chains, one of allotype 3 and one of allotype 12


    Q.9 The resting membrane potential

    (a) Occurs only in nerve and muscle cells
    (b) Is the same in all cells.
    (c) Is oriented so that the cell's interior is positive with respect to the extracellular fluid.
    (d) Requires the separation of most of the cell's charged particles.


    Q.10 Which of the following is NOT part of Koch's postulates?

    (a) The microorganism is never found in healthy animals.
    (b) The microorganisms is always found in diseased animals.
    (c) The microorganism must cause disease in healthy animals.
    (d) The microorganism must secrete a toxin in culture.

    Q.11. A microscope uses a micro-objective 10X, numerical aperture 0.25 and an eyepiece of focal length of 25 mm. The magnification of the microscope is
    Options
    A) 25
    B) 50
    C) 100
    D) 125
    Correct Answer C

    12 The output from a 633 nm He-Ne laser comes out from the mirror with a beam diameter of lmm and diverges to the far field. It is brought to a focus by a convex lens of focal length of 17 mm. The spot size diameter of the beam at the focal point is

    A) 20 m m
    B) 26 m m
    C) 52 m m
    D) 13 m m
    Correct Answer C

    13 A minimal microcomputer system is constructed using INTEL 8085 microprocessor, an 8156 RAM and an 8355 ROM. The chip enable CE of 8355 are connected to the address line A12. of 8085.
    The address of port A of the 8156 chip is
    Options
    A) 21H
    B) 12 H
    C) 11H
    D) 20H
    Correct Answer D
  4. krishna

    krishna Banned

    Jul 21, 2013


    GATE Paper I

    1. The critical value of Reynolds number for transition from laminar to turbulent boundary layer in external flows is taken as

    (a) 2300 - Answer
    (b) 4000
    (c) 5 x 105
    (d) 3 X 106
    (Expl : Critical value of Reynolds number for transition from laminar to turbulant layer in external flows is taken as 2300.)

    2. The by-pass factor of single coil in an air-conditioner is 0.7. The by-pass factor, if three such cooling coils with the same appartus dew point are kept one behind the other will be
    (a) 0.210
    (b) 0.292
    (c) 0.343 - Answer
    (d) 0.412

    3. Which one of the following statements is true for air conditioning duct design ?
    (a) Static regain method is used, when the duct work is extensive, total pressure drop is low and flow is balanced
    (b) Static regain method is used, when the duct work is extensive, total pressure drop is high and flow is unbalanced
    (c) Equal friction method is used, when the duct work is extensive, total pressure drop is low and flow is balanced - Answer
    (d) Equal friction method is used, when duct work is extensive, total pressure drop is low and flow is unbalanced.

    4. For an-conditioned space, RTH = 100 kW; RSHF = 0.75, volume flow rate is equal to 100 m3/minute and indoor design specific humidity is 0.01 kg/(kg of dry air). The specific humidity of supply air is
    (a) 0.010
    (b) 0.0075
    (c) 0.005 - Answer
    (d) 0.0025

    5. For an air-conditioning system, the outdoor and indoor design dry bulb temperature are 45o C and 25oC respectively. The space to be air-conditioned is 20 m X 30m X 5 m and infiltration is estimated to be one air change. If the density and specific heat of air are 1.2 (kg of dry air)/m3 and 1.02 kJ/(Kg of dry air)oC, then the sensible heat load due to infiltration is nearly
    (a) 122.4 kW
    (b) 61.2 kW
    (c) 12.24 kW
    (d) 20.4 kW - Answer

    6. Match List -I and List ii and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    (hm - mass transfer coefficient, D - molecular diffusion coefficient
    L - characteristic length dimension k - thermal conductivity , p - density
    Cp - specific heat at constant pressure u - dynamic viscosity )


    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 4 3 2 1
    (b) 3 4 2 1 - Ans
    (c) 4 3 1 2
    (d) 3 4 1 2

    7. In the operation of four-stroke diesel engines, the term 'squish' refers to the
    (a) injection of fuel ! in the precombustion chamber - Ans
    (b) discharge of gases from the precombustion chamber
    (c) entry of air into the combustion chamber
    (d) stripping of fuel from the core

    8. Consider the following statements regarding the advantages of fuel injection over carburetion in S.I. engines :
    1. Higher power output and increased volumetric efficiency
    2. Simple and inexpensive injection equipment
    3. Longer life of injection equipment
    4. Less knocking and reduced tendency for back-fire
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    Codes :
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 1, 2 and 4
    (c) 2 and 3
    (d) 1 and 4 - Ans

    9. Match List -I(Performance Parameter Y) with List-II (Curves labelled 1,2,3,4 and 5 BHP vs. Y) regarding a C.I. engine run at constant speed and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:


    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 5 3 4 2 - Ans
    (b) 1 3 4 2
    (c) 5 4 2 3
    (d) 1 4 2 3

    10. Match List -I with List -II(Use) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
    List - I List - II
    A. Supercharging 1. Multicylinder engine
    B. Morse test 2. C.I. engine
    C. Heterogeneous combustion 3. Calorific value
    D. Ignition quality of petrol 4. Aircraft engine
    5. Octane number
    6. Single cylinder S.I. engine

    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 4 1 2 5 - Ans
    (b) 6 3 2 5
    (c) 6 1 5 2
    (d) 4 3 5 2

    11. With reference to Turbojet and Rocker engines, consider the following statements :
    1. Efficiency of Rocket engines is higher than that of Jet engines
    2. Exit velocities of exhaust gases in Rocker engines are much higher than those in Jet engines
    3. Stagnation conditions exist at the combustion chamber in Rocket engines
    4. Rocket engines are air-breathing engines
    Which of these statements are correct ?
    (a) 1 and 2 - Ans
    (b) 1, 3 and 4
    (c) 2,3 and 4
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    12. With respect to I.C. engine emission, consider the following statements :
    1. Evaporative emissions have no carbon monoxide and oxides of nitrogen
    2. Blow by emission are essentially carbon monoxide and suspended particulate matter
    3. Exhaust emissions contain 100% of carbon monoxide , 100 % of oxides of nitrogen and around 50-55% of hydrocarbons emitted by the engine.
    4. There are no suspended particulates in the exhaust.
    Of these statements
    (a) 1 and 4 are correct
    (b) 1 and 3 are correct
    (c) 2 and 3 are correct - Ans
    (d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

    13. A hydrocarbon fuel was burnt with air and the Orsat analysis of the dry products of combustion yielded the following data :
    ____________________________________________________
    Initial volume of dry gas sample --- 100 cc
    Volume after absorption in pipette 1 containing --- 89 cc
    potassium hydroxide solution
    Volume after absorption in pipette 2 containing --- 84 cc
    solution of pyrogallic acid and potassium hydroxide
    Volume after absorption in pipette 3 containing --- 82 cc
    cuprous chloride solution
    ____________________________________________________
    The percentage (by volume) of CO2 in the dry product was
    (a) 2%
    (b) 5%
    (c) 11% - Ans
    (d) 18%

    14. Match List -I with List -II(Use) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
    List -I (Material) List-II (Use)
    A. Graphic 1. Coolant
    B. Thorium-233 2. Moderator
    C. Molten Sodium 3. Fissionable material
    D. Plutonium-239 4. Fissile material
    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 1 4 2 3
    (b) 2 4 1 3 - Ans
    (c) 2 3 1 4
    (d) 1 3 2 4

    15. The data given in the table refers to an engine based on Carnot cycle, where
    Q1 = Heat received (kJ/min), Q2=Hear rejected (kJ/s), W=Work output (kW)
    _______________________________________________
    S. No. Q1 Q2 W
    _______________________________________________
    1. 1500 16.80 8.20
    2. 1600 17.92 8.75
    3. 1700 19.03 9.30
    4. 1800 20.15 9.85
    If heat received by the engine is 2000 kJ/minute the work output will be, nearly,
    (a) 9.98
    (b) 10.39
    (c) 11.54
    (d) 10.95 - Ans

    16. A system while undergoing a cycle
    A__B__C__D__A has the values of heat and work transfers as given in the table :
    _____________________________________________________
    Q W
    Process kJ/min kJ/min
    A__B +687 +474
    B__C -269 0
    C__D - 199 -180
    D__A +75 0
    The power developed in kW is, nearly,
    (a) 4.9 - Ans
    (b) 24.5
    (c) 49
    (d) 98

    17. In a new temperature scale say op, the boiling and freezing points of water at one atmosphere are 100op and 300op respectively. Correlate this scale with the Centigrade scale. The reading of 0o p on the Centigrade scale is
    (a) 0oC
    (b) 50oC
    (c) 100oC
    (d) 150oC - Ans
  5. krishna

    krishna Banned

    18. Match List-I (Name of entity) with List-II (Definition) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List-I (Name of entity) List-II (Definition)


    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 2 1 4 3
    (b) 2 3 4 1
    (c) 4 3 2 1 - Ans
    (d) 4 1 2 3

    19. If Pu and pv denote respectively the partial pressure of dry air and that of water in moist air, the specific humidity of air is given by
    (a) Pv
    Pu + Pv

    (b) Pv
    Pu

    (c) 0.622 Pv - Ans
    Pu

    (d) 0.622 Pv
    Pu +Pv
    20. Consider the phase diagram of a certain substance as shown in the given figure. Match List I(Process) with List-II (Curves/lines) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List I(Process) List-II (Curves/lines)
    A. Vaporization 1. EF
    B. Fusion 2. EG
    C. Sublimation 3. ED



    Codes :
    A B C
    (a) 1 3 2 - Ans
    (b) 1 2 3
    (c) 3 2 1
    (d) 3 1 2

    21. Number of components (C), phase (P) and degrees of freedom (F) are related by Gibbs-phase rule as
    (a) C__P__F = 2
    (b) F__C__P = 2
    (c) C+F - P = 2
    (d) P + F-C = 2 - Ans

    22. Consider the following statements :
    1. Availability is the maximum theoretical work obtainable.
    2. Clapeyron's equaation for dry saturated steam is given by

    3. A gas can have any temperature at a given pressure unlike a vapour which has a fixed temperature at a given pressure.
    4. Joule Thomson coefficient is expressed as

    Of these statements
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct - Ans
    (b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
    (c) 2 and 3 are correct
    (d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

    23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :


    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 3 4 1 2 - Ans
    (b) 1 4 3 2
    (c) 3 2 1 4
    (d) 1 2 3 4

    24. The temperature -entropy diagram for a steam turbine power plant, operating on the Rankine cycle with reheat and regenerative feed heating is shown in the given figure. If m denotes the fraction of steam bled for feed heating, the work developed in the turbine per kg steam entering the turbine at state 5 is

    (a) (h5 -h4) + (1-m)(h3-h1) - Ans
    (b) (h5-h4)+(h3-h2)+(1-m)(h2-h1)
    (c) 2h5-h4-h2+(1-m)(h2-h1)
    (d) (h5-h4) +(1-m)(h3-h2)

    25. The working temperature in the evaporator and condenser coils of a refrigerator are -30oC and 32oC respectively. If the actual refrigerator has a C.O.P of 0.75 of the maximum. the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 5 kW is, nearly,
    (a) 1.7 kW - Ans
    (b) 2.94 kW
    (c) 3.92 kW
    (d) 4.0 kW

    26. Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List -I List-II
    A. Air standard efficiency of Otto cycle 1. Mechanical efficiency
    B. Morse test 2. Diesel cycle
    C. Constant volume cycle 3. Brake thermal efficiency
    D. Constant pressure heat addition 4. Otto cycle
    5. 1- 1
    r(r-1)
    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 5 1 4 2 - Ans
    (b) 3 5 2 4
    (c) 3 5 4 2
    (d) 5 1 2 4

    27. Match List -I (fuels) with List-II (Characteristics/Usages) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List -I (fuels) List-II (Characteristics/Usages)
    A. Semi-bituminous coal 1. Methane and carbon dioxide
    B. High -speed diesel oil 2. Propane and butane
    C. Biogas 3. Calorific value of 10,6000 kCal/kg
    D. LPG 4. Power plants

    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 3 4 1 2
    (b) 4 3 2 1 - Ans
    (c) 3 4 2 1
    (d) 4 3 1 2

    28. Consider the following statements :
    1. Motor gasoline is mixture of various hydrocarbons with a major proportion being aromatic hydrocarbons.
    2. Compressed natural gas is mainly composed of methane
    3. Producer gas has a predominant component of hydrogen with lesser proportion of carbon monoxide.
    4. Cetane number of fuel used in diesel engines in India is in the range of 80 to 90.
    Which of these statements are correct ?
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 1 and 3 - Ans
    (c) 2, 3 and 4
    (d) 1,2, 3 and 4

    29. Consider the following statements :
    1. For the combustion of pulverised coal, 5 to 10% excess air is required.
    2. Air contains 21% oxygen by weight
    3. The flue gases from a coal -fired furnace contain around 70% nitrogen by volume.
    4. In the combustion of liquid fuels, the number of moles of the products are invariably greater than the number of moles of the reactants.
    Of these statements
    (a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
    (b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
    (c) 2,3 and 4 are correct
    (d) 1 and 3 are correct

    30. Match items in List-I (Process) with those in List-II(Characteristic) and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
    List -I (Process) List - II (Characteristic)
    A. Throttling process 1. No work done
    B. Isentropic process 2. No change in entropy
    C. Free-expansion 3. Constant internal energy
    D. Isothermal process 4. Constant enthalpy
    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 4 2 1 3 - Ans
    (b) 1 2 4 3
    (c) 4 3 1 2
    (d) 1 3 4 2

    31. A rectangular tank of square cross-section is having its height equal to twice the length of any side at the base. If the tank is filled up with a liquid, the ratio of the total hydrostatic force on any vertical wall to that at the bottom is
    (a) 2.0
    (b) 1.5
    (c) 1.0 - Ans
    (d) 0.5

    32. Differential pressure head measured by mercury oil differential manometer (specific gravity of oil is 0.9) equivalent to a 600 mm difference of mercury levels will nearly be
    (a) 7.62m of oil
    (b) 76.2 m of oil
    (c) 7.34m of oil
    (d) 8.47 m of oil - Ans

    33. A block of aluminium having mass of 12 kg is suspended by a wire and lowered until sub-merged into a tank containing oil of relative density 0.8. Taking the relative density of aluminium as 2.4, the tension in the wire will be (take g=10 m/s2)
    (a) 12000 N
    (b) 800 N
    (c) 120 N
    (d) 80 N - Ans

    34. A barge 30 m long and 10 m wide has a draft of 3 m when floating with its sides in vertical position. if it s centre of gravity is 2.5 m above the bottom, the nearest value of metacentric height is
    (a) 3.28 m
    (b) 2.78 m - Ans
    (c) 1.78 m
    (d) zero

    35. A cylindrical vessel having its height equal to its diameter is filled with liquid and moved horizontally at an acceleration equal to acceleration due to gravity. The ratio of the liquid left in the vessel to the liquid at static equilibrium condition is
    (a) 0.2
    (b) 0.4
    (c) 0.5 - Ans
    (d) 0.75

    36. The shear stress developed in a libricating oil, of viscosity 9.81 poise, filled between two parallel plates 1 cm apart and moving with relative velocity of 2 m/s is
    (a) 20 N/m 2
    (b) 19.62 N/m 2 - Ans
    (c) 29.62 N/m 2
    (d) 40 N/m 2

    37. The convective acceleration of fluid in the x-direction is given by
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    38. Match List-I (Types of flow) with List-II (Basic ideal flows) and select the correct answer : using the codes given below the lists :
    List-I (Types of flow) List-II (Basic ideal flows)
    A. Flow over a stationery cylinder 1. Source + sink + uniform flow
    B. Flow over a half Ranking body 2. Doublet + uniform flow
    C. Flow over a rotating body 3. Source + uniform flow
    D. Flow over a Rankine oval 4. doublet + free vortex + uniform flow
    Codes :
    A B C D
    (a) 1 4 3 2
    (b) 2 4 3 1
    (c) 1 3 4 2
    (d) 2 3 4 1 - Ans

    39. A glass tube with a 90oC bed is open at both the ends. it is inserted into a flowing stream of oil, S=0.90, so that one opening is directed upstream and the other is directed upward oil inside the tube is 50 mm higher than the surface of flowing oil. The velocity measured by the tube is, nearly,
    (a) 0.89m/s
    (b) 0.99 m/s
    (c) 1.40 m/s. - Ans
    (d) 1.90 m/s

    40. At location -I of a horizontal line, the fluid pressure head is 32 cm and velocity head is 4 cm. The reduction in area at location II si such that the pressure head drops down to zero. The ratio of velocities at location-II to that at location -I is

    (a) 3 - Ans
    (b) 2.5
    (c)2
    (d) 1.5

    41. For maximum transmission of power through a pipe line with total head H, the head lost due to friction hf is given by
    (a) 0.1H
    (b) H - Ans
    3
    (c) H
    2

    (d) 2H
    3

    42. Two pipelines of equal length and with diameters of 15 cm and 10 com are in parallel and connect two reservoirs. The difference in water levels inthe reservoirs is 3 m. if the friction is assumed to be equal, the ratio of the discharge due to the larger dia pipe to that of the smaller dia pipe is, nearly,
    (a) 3.375
    (b) 2.756
    (c) 2.25
    (d) 1.5 - Ans

    43. The critical depth of a rectangular channel of width 4.0 m for a discharge of 12 m3/s is nearly,
    (a) 300 mm
    (b) 30 mm
    (c) 0.972 m - Ans
    (d) 0.674 m

    44. An open channel flow encounters a hydraulic jump as shown in the figure. The following fluid flow conditions are observed between A and B :

    1. Critical depth
    2. Steady non-uniform flow
    3. Unsteady non-uniform flow
    4. Steady uniform flow
    The correct sequence of the flow conditions in the direction of flow is
    (a) 1,2,3,4
    (b) 1,4,2,3
    (c) 2,1,4,3 - Ans
    (d) 4,2,3,1

    45. Laminar developed flow at an average velocity of 5 m/s occurs in a pipe of 10 cm radius. The velocity at 5 com radius is
    (a) 7.5 m/s.
    (b) 10 m/s
    (c) 2.5 m/s
    (d) 5 m/s - Ans

    46. In a fully-developed turbulent pipe flow, assuming 1/7th power law, the ratio of the mean velocity at the centre of the pipe to the average velocity of the flow is
    (a) 2.0
    (b) 1.5
    (c) 1.22
    (d) 0.817 - Ans

    47. The pressure drop in a 100 mm diameter horizontal pipe is 50 kPa over a length of 10 m. The shear stress at the pipe wall is
    (a) 0.25 kPa
    (b) 0.125 kPa
    (c) 0.50 kPa - Ans
    (d) 25.0 kPa

    48. Which portion of the centrifugal compressor characteristics shown in the figure is difficult to obtain experimentally?

    (a) RS - Ans
    (b) ST
    (c) TU
    (d) UV

    49. Consider the following statement regarding the axial flow in an air compressor:
    1. Surging is a local phenomenon while stalling affects the entire compressor
    2. Stalling is a local phenomenon while surging affects the entire compressor
    3. The pressure ratio of an axial compressor stage is smaller than that of a centrifugal compressor stage.
    Of these statements
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
    (b) 1 and 2 are correct
    (c) 2 and 3 are correct
    (d) 1 and 3 are correct - Ans

    50. Consider the specific speed ranges of the following types of turbines :
    1. Francis 2. Kaplan 3.Pelton
    (a) 1,2,3
    (b) 3,1,2 - Ans
    (c) 3,2,1
    (d) 2,3,1

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