# Chennai Metro Rail Limited (CMRL) Paper on Mar 11, 2013

Discussion in 'Latest Placement papers' started by krishna, Aug 27, 2013.

1. ### krishnaBanned

1. Two 100-W, 200-V lamps are connected in series across a 200-V supply. The total power consumed by each lam will be _____ watts.

(a) 200

(b) 100

(c) 50

(d) 25 (Ans)

2. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is not valid for a non-linear network.

(a) True

(b) False (Ans)

3. The material used for fuse must have

(a) low melting point and low specific resistance

(b) high melting point and low specific resistance

(c) low melting point and high specific resistance (Ans)

(d) none of these

4. If a piece of metal wire is stretched, its resistance will increase.

(a) True (Ans)

(b) False

5. The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is ____ ohm.

(a) 75 (Ans)

(b) 600

(c) 500

(d) 250

6. In mesh analysis of a network, all the mesh current must necessarily be either clock-wise or anticlock-wise.

(a) True (Ans)

(b) False

7. The purpose of introducing reactor in the ignition circuit of mercury are rectifier is to limit the

(a) voltage of the circuit

(b) rate of change of flux in the circuit

(c) current in the circuit (Ans)

(d) rate of change of current in the circuit

8. An uncharged capacitor is connected across a charged one. There will flow an impulsive current through the circuit.

(a) True (Ans)

(b) False

9. In the case of a lossy capacitor, series equivalent resistance value will be

(a) small

(b) large (Ans)

(c) very small

(d) none of these

10. Time constant of an R- C circuit increases if the value of resistance is

(a) decreased

(b) increased (Ans)

(c) neither (a) nor (b)

(d) either (a) nor (b)

11. If R, L and C denote resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively, the quantity RC has the same dimensions as that of R/L.

(a) True

(b) False (Ans)

12. If R, L and C denote resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively, the quantity CR2 has the dimensions of L.

(a) True (Ans)

(b) False

13. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a

(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts (Ans)

(b) resistance in the line

(c) capacitor in series with contacts

(d) none of these

14. A battery will not cause any current to flow, when it is connected across a pure capacitor, in the steady state even if the capacitor value varies with time.

(a) True

(b) False (Ans)

15. Voltage stress is maximum in a cable at the surface of the

(a) insulator

(b) sheath

(c) conductor (Ans)

(d) none of these

16. When two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in series, the effective capacitance is C1 + C2

(a) True

(b) False (Ans)

17. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high

(a) resistance (Ans)

(b) inductance

(c) capacitance

(d) none of these

18. The flux linked with a coil of inductance L carrying a current is d/dt (Li) .

(a) True

(b) False (Ans)

19. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on

(a) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (Ans)

(b) mutual inductance between two coils only

(c) self inductances of the two coils only

(d) none of these

20. The location of lightning arrestor is

(a) away from the transformer

(b) near the transformer (Ans)

(c) near the circuit breaker

(d) none of these

21. A conductor of length 1 metre moves at rt. angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 Wb/m2 with a velocity of 25 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be _______ volt.

(a) 75

(b) 25 (Ans)

(c) 50

(d) 100

22. In electrical machines, laminated cores are used with a view to reducing

(a) eddy current loss (Ans)

(b) hysteresis loss

23. A battery

(a) always delivers power

(b) always absorbs power

(c) absorbs power when the internal resistance is non-zero but delivers power when the internal resistance is zero

(d) can absorb or deliver power depending upon the circuit to which it is connected (Ans)

24. When one wants to connect two batteries in parallel to draw larger current than what can be supplied by one battery, it suffices to ensure that their e.m.f.s. are equal.

(a) True (Ans)

(b) False

25. An ideal battery can supply infinite current

(a) True

(b) False (Ans)

26. Decibel is a

(a) unit of voltage

(b) unit of power

(c) ratio of power (Ans)

(d) none of these

27. dBm is a

(a) ratio of power (Ans)

(b) unit of power

(c) unit of voltage

(d) none of these

28. Decibel is a unit of

(a) frequency

(b) impedance

(c) power ratio (Ans)

(d) none of these

29. The absolute unit of resistance is of the dimension of

(a) velocity (Ans)

(b) length

(c) acceleration

(d) none of these

30. The absolute unit of inductance is of the dimension of

(a) time

(b) length (Ans)

(c) mass

(d) none of these

31. The applied voltage from the circuit being checked is disconnected when an ohmmeter is used because

(a) the current will decrease the resistance

(b) the ohmmeter has its own battery

(c) no current is needed for meter movements

(d) the voltage source will increase the resistance (Ans)

32. An accurate voltmeter must have an internal impedance of

(a) very high value (Ans)

(b) very low value

(c) low value

(d) none of these

33. A moving-coil instrument can be used to measure

(a) high frequency a.c.

(b) low frequency a.c.

(c) both d.c. and a.c

(d) direct current (Ans)

34. The voltage drop across the moving coil of a 50-μA (f.s) PMMC meter at full-scale deflection is ___ the voltage drop across that of a 1-mA (fs) PMMC meter at full-scale deflection.

(a) less than

(b) approximately equal to (Ans)

(c) greater than

(d) none of these

35. Deflection of pointer of a permanent-magnet moving-coil meter for fixed current is ______flux density in the air gap between magnetic pole shoes and coil.

(a) independent of

(b) directly proportional to (Ans)

(c) inversely proportional to

(d) none of these

36. A moving-iron meter is useful for voltage measurement at _____ frequencies.

(a) high

(b) low (Ans)

(c) very high

(d) none of these

37. A thermocouple instrument would be useful for current measurement at _____ frequencies.

(a) low

(b) very low

(c) very high (Ans)

(d) none of these

38. Which of the following instruments will be used to measure alternating current only ?

(a) moving-iron (attraction-type) ammeter

(b) moving-iron voltmeter

(c) permanent-magnet type ammeter

(d) induction-type ammeter (Ans)

39. A milliammeter can be used

(a) only as an ammeter

(b) as a voltmeter

(c) both as voltmeter and ammeter (Ans)

(d) none of these

40. To measure the e.m.f. of a Weston standard cell, one would use a/an

(a) electrostatic voltmeter

(b) hot-wire voltmeter

(c) galvanometer

(d) potentiometer (Ans)

41. Deflection sensitivity of deflecting plates of a cathode ray tube ___ the distance between deflection plates.

(a) is inversely proportional to (Ans)

(b) is directly proportional to

(c) does not depend on

(d) none of these

42. Deflection sensitivity of deflecting plates of a cathode ray tube ____ the accelerating anode (A3) voltage.

(a) is inversely proportional to (Ans)

(b) is directly proportional to

(c) does not depend on

(d) none of these

43. A moving-coil instrument can be used to measure

(a) direct current (Ans)

(b) alternating current

(c) both direct current and alternating current

(d) none of these

44. The frequency stability of a crystal oscillator depends upon

(a) tuned circuit

(b) crystal (Ans)

(c) crystal as well as the tuned circuit.

(d) none of these

45. Hay bridge is usually used for measuring

(a) resistance

(b) capacitance

(c) inductance (Ans)

(d) none of these

46. Schering bridge is used for measuring

(a) capacitance (Ans)

(b) inductance

(c) frequency

(d) none of these

47. The Wien's bridge is particularly useful for measuring frequencies of ____ value.

(a) low

(b) very high

(c) high (Ans)

(d) very low

48. Impedance relay is used to protect

(a) line within a particular zone (Ans)

(b) line beyond a particular zone

(c) the whole transmission system

(d) none of these

49. Buchholz relay is used in ____ protection.

(a) line

(b) generator

(c) transformer (Ans)

(d) none of these

50. 1 GHz means 109 Hz.

(a) True (Ans)

(b) False
2. ### krishnaBanned

1. 832.58-242.31 = 779.84 - ?
a) 179.57
b) 199.57
c) 295.05
d) None of these (Ans)
Explanation : Let 832.58 - 242.31 = 779.84 - X
Then, x = (779.84 + 242.31) - 832.58 = 1022.15 - 832.58=189.57

2. If α is a complex number such that α2+ α+ 1 = 0, then what is α31 equal to ?
a) α (Ans)
b) α2
c) 0
d) 1

3. The circle x2 , y2 , z2 are in AP, then y + z, z+x ; x+y are
a) in AP
b) in HP (Ans)
c) in GP
d) neither in AP nor in GP

4. The difference between simple interest and compound on Rs. 1200 for one year at 10% per annum reckoned half-yearly is:
a) Rs. 2.50
b) Rs. 3 (Ans)
c) Rs. 3.75
d) Rs. 4
e) None of these
Explanation: S.I. = Rs.(1200 x 10 x 1) = Rs. 120.
100
C.I. = Rs. 1200 x (1 + 5 )2 - 1200 = Rs. 123.
100
:. Difference = Rs. (123 - 120) = Rs. 3

5. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples. Originally, he had:
a) 588 apples
b) 600 apples
c) 672 apples
d) 700 apples (Ans)
Explanation: Suppose originally he had x apples. Then, (100 - 40)% of x =420.
=> 60/100 xx = 420
=> x = (420 x 100) = 700
60
6. A car travelling with of its actual speed covers 42 km in 1 hr 40 min 48 sec. Find the actual speed of the car.
a) 17 and 6/7 km /hr
b) 25 km/hr
c) 30 km/hr
d) 35 km/hr (Ans)

Explanation: Time taken = 1 hr 40 min 48 sec = 1 hr 40 and 4/5 min = 1and 51/75 hrs = 126/75 hrs.
Let the actual speed be x km/hr.
Then, 5 x 126 = 42
7 75
==> x = (42 x 7x75) = 35 km/hr
5 x 126

7. Direction (for Q.No. 6): Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.
105, 85, 60, 30, 0, -45, -90
a) 0 (Ans)
b) 85
c) -45
d) 60
Explanation : Subtract 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45 from successive numbers. So, 0 is wrong.

8. The area of playground is 1600 m2. What is the perimeter?
I. It is a perfect square playground.
II. It costs Rs. 3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs. 20 per metre.

a) I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
b) II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
c) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer (Ans)
d) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
e) Both I and II are necessary to answer

Explanation : Area = 1600 m2
I. Side = √1600 m = 40m. So, perimeter =(40x4)m = 160m
:. I alone gives the answer
II. Perimeter = Total Cost = 3200 m = 160 m
Cost per metre 20
:. II alone gives the answer

9. If 5a = 3125, then the value of 5(a - 3) is:
a) 25 (Ans)
b) 125
c) 625
d) 1625
Explanation: 5a = 3125 => 5a = 55
=>a = 5.
:. 5(a - 3) = 5(5 - 3) = 52 = 25.

10. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to second is 2 :3 and that of the second to the third is 5 : 8, then the second number is:
a) 20
b) 30
c) 48 (Ans)
d) 58
Explanation: Let the three parts be A, B, C. Then,
A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 5 : 8 = (5 x 3/5): (8 x3/5) = 3: 24/5
==> A:B:C = 2:3: 24/5 = 10:15:24
==> B = (98 x 15/49) = 30
3. ### krishnaBanned

1. A computer can be defined as an electronic device which can

(a) carry out arithmetical operations

(b) carry out logical functions

(c) do complicated calculations

(d) accept and process data by implementing sequentially a set of stored instructions (Ans)

(e) present information to the operator on a visual display unit.

2. Stored instructions and data in a digital computer consist of :

(a) alphabets

(b) numerals

(c) characters

(d) scripts

(e) bits (Ans)

3. Binary coded decimal (BCD) numbers express each decimal unit digits as

(a) binary digits

(b) digits and strings

(c) nibble (Ans)

(d) word

(e) byte

4. The central processing unit

(a) is operated from the control panel

(b) is controlled by input data as it enters the system

(c) is controlled by the auxiliary storage unit

(d) controls all input, output and processing. (Ans)

5. Modern computers process

(a) decimal numbers

(b) digits and strings

(d) binary numbers (Ans)

6. The sequence of instructions that tell the computer how to process the data is called

(a) flow chart

(b) control unit

(c) program (Ans)

7. A hexadecimal odometer displays F 52F. The next reading will be

(a) F 52E

(b) G 52F

(c) F 53F

(d) F 53O (Ans)

8. Integrated circuits, solid state technology was used in following generations of computers :

(a) first

(b) second

(c) third (Ans)

(d) fourth

(e) fifth

9. A computer is capable of performing almost any test, provided that it can be

(a) coded

(b) memorized

(c) analyzed

(d) reduced to a series of logical series (Ans)

10. The binary information contained in computer is referred to as :

(a) word

(b) memory

(c) program (Ans)

(d) instruction

(e) code

11. The computers that dealt with discrete data are called

(a) discrete computers

(b) digital computers (Ans)

(c) analog computers

(d) hybrid computers

12. Retaining data for future reference is called

(a) storing (Ans)

(b) sorting

(c) memorizing

(d) outputting

13. The hexadecimal system is widely used in analyzing and programming in

(a) analog computers

(b) binary computers

(c) decimal computers

(d) micro computers (Ans)

14. The term 'word' in computer technology refers to

(a) bits formed into groups (Ans)

(b) coded instructions

(c) memory size

(d) language used

15. A group of electronic, magnetic or mechanical devices that store data is called

(a) register (Ans)

(c) program

(d) software

16. The ASCII code is a 7 bit code for

(a) letters

(b) numbers

(c) decimals

(d) alpha numerics (Ans)

17. If one were to allow 6 bits per symbol, the following numbers of different symbols could be encoded

(a) 16

(b) 2

(c) 64 (Ans)

(d) 80

(a) decimal

(b) binary (Ans)

(c) octal

(d) BCD.

19. The different memory locations are identified by hexadecimal numbers is called

(b) hex-dabble

(c) BCD numbers

(d) ASCII code

20. A collection of software that controls the overall operation of a computer is called

(a) application software

(b) packaged program

(c) system software

(d) operating system (Ans)

21. In order that a digital compute be freely programmed, it is provided with the following type memory :

(a) core memory

(b) RAM (Ans)

(c) ROM

(d) EPROM

22. Microprocessor is based on

(a) thermionic valves

(b) transistors

(c) integrated circuits

(d) chips. (Ans)

23. Storage of 1 K means that it has following number of storage locations :

(a) 1000

(b) 964

(c) 1024 (Ans)

(d) 1032

24. A 64 K bit word computer has

(a) 64 * 1000 bits

(b) 64 * 1012 bits

(c) 64 * 1020 bits

(d) 64 * 1024 bits (Ans)

25. Which of the following is the most troublesome in computer system ?

(a) CPU

(b) CRT

(c) Printer

(d) Floppy disk (Ans)

26. If electrical power supply to a computer system is inadvertently disrupted, the serious damage would occurs to

(a) CPU

(b) disk (Ans)

(c) CRT

(d) Printer

27. The operation of the ALU is directed by :

(a) The ALU itself

(b) program

(c) registers

(d) memory unit

(e) control unit (Ans)

28. Which of the following is not a hard ware

(a) card

(b) magnetic tape

(c) printer

(d) assembler (Ans)

(e) CRT

29. A digital computer system consists of a CPU interfaced with

(a) input devices

(b) auxiliary storage

(c) output devices

(d) all of these (Ans)

30. Memory is divided into many numerically addressed

(a) logics

(b) locations (Ans)

(c) codes

(d) cells

31. The heart of a digital computer is

(a) control unit (Ans)

(b) memory unit

(c) logical unit

(d) visual display unit

32. The smallest logical data entity in organizing of data for computer processing is

(a) file

(b) field (Ans)

(c) record

(d) data base

33. A collection of related fields in data organization is called

(a) group

(b) register

(c) file

(d) organization (Ans)

(e) record

34. A group of related characters that are treated as a single unit is called

(a) data

(b) information

(c) field (Ans)

(d) record

35. The use of computers to create, view, edit, retrieve and print text materials is called

(a) word processing (Ans)

(b) line printing

(c) inventory control

(d) typing

36. The sequence of instructions telling the machine to perform a particular sequence of operations is called

(a) program (Ans)

(b) hardware

(c) algorithm

(d) emulator

37. Errors in computer results could be due to

(a) encoding of data

(b) transmission of data

(c) manipulation of data

(d) all of the above (Ans)

38. The data obtained by counting are called

(a) digital data

(b) continuous data

(c) analog data

(d) discrete data (Ans)

39. Which type of computer operates by directly counting numbers

(a) special purpose

(b) analog

(c) digital (Ans)

(d) hybrid

40. A group of characters which are treated s single entity

(a) bit

(b) byte

(c) word (Ans)

41. A string of binary digits treated as a unit is called

(a) bit

(b) byte (Ans)

(c) word

(d) character

42. Both the ALU and control section have special-purpose storage location called

(b) registers (Ans)

(c) accumulators

(d) decoders

43. Octal number system uses fundamental digits 0 to 7.1248 (octal) in a decimal equivalent is equal to :

(a) 8010

(b) 8210

(c) 8410 (Ans)

(d) 8610

44. 9210 (decimal) in octal number system is equivalent to

(a) 1288

(b) 1308

(c) 1328

(d) 1348 (Ans)

45. Four-digit binary quantity 1001 represented in the decimal system by

(a) 7

(b) 9 (Ans)

(c) 11

(d) 13

46. Binary number 101101 is equivalent, in decimal form, to

(a) 41

(b) 43

(c) 45 (Ans)

(d) 47

47. Number 37310 is equivalent in binary system to

(a) 101110101 (Ans)

(b) 100110101

(c) 101010101

(d) 101110011

48. Which of the following is termed as minimum error code ?

(a) binary code

(b) gray code (Ans)

(c) excess 3-code

(d) octal code

49. Hexadecimal can express in one digit, what is done by ................. binary number of binary digits.

(a) one

(b) two

(c) four (Ans)

(d) eight

50. The sequence of instructions that tell the computer how to process data is called

(a) flow chart

(b) CPU

(c) control unit

(d) program (Ans)
4. ### krishnaBanned

51. CRAY- 1 is a

(a) microcomputer

(b) minicomputer (Ans)

(c) mainframe computer

(d) super computer

52. Most mainframe computers are basically

(a) 4 bit machine

(b) 8 bit machine

(c) 16 bit machine

(d) 32 bit machine (Ans)

53. In EBCDIC (extended binary coded decimal interchange code), each character is denoted by

(a) 3 bits

(b) 4 bits

(c) 5 bits

(d) 7 bits

(e) 8 bits (Ans)

54. PROM is a memory

(a) to write only

(b) to read and writ only

(d) in which data can be altered occasionally (Ans)

55. Which of the following is not a magnetic memory :

(a) core

(b) disk

(c) flip-flop (Ans)

(d) tape

56. Which of the following is a volatile memory ?

(a) magnetic core

(b) disk

(c) drum

(d) tape

(e) flip-flop (Ans)

57. The term daisy wheel is connected with

(a) CPU

(b) core memory

(c) magnetic tape

(d) printers (Ans)

(e) visual display unit

58. Which of the following is a RAM ?

(a) tape

(b) drum

(c) core (Ans)

(d) disc

(e) flip-flop

59. Permanent data like log tables are stored in a computer on a

(a) drum

(b) tape

(c) core

(d) RAM

(e) ROM (Ans)

60. Pick out which does not belong to family

(a) ferrite core (Ans)

(b) cassette

(c) drum

(d) tape

61. One disadvantage of RAM is that it is

(a) slow

(b) volatile (Ans)

(c) inaccurate

(d) bulky

62. Buffer registers form part of

(a) data bus

(b) CPU

(c) main memory

(d) slow input-output devices (Ans)

63. A display panel is associated with

(a) main memory

(b) ALU

(c) data bus

(d) CPU

(e) control unit (Ans)

64. Floppy disk in a computer system is

(a) hardware (Ans)

(b) software

(c) compiler

(d) core memory

65. One or more punches in a single column on the Hollerith card represents a

(a) bit

(b) byte

(c) word

(d) character (Ans)

66. Hollerith code is used for

(a) CPU

(b) magnetic drums

(c) paper tape

(d) floppy drives

(e) punched card (Ans)

67. Each Hollerith card can store

(a) 12 characters

(b) 40 characters

(c) 80 characters (Ans)

(d) 96 characters

68. Tracks per drum on magentic drum storage unit may be as low as

(a) 12

(b) 40

(c) 61

(d) 100

(e) 144 (Ans)

69. Tracks per drum on magnetic drum may be as high as

(a) 144

(b) 220

(c) 512

(d) 800

(e) 6144 (Ans)

70. Packing density on magnetic drum is of the order of

(a) 20 bits/cm

(b) 100 bits/cm

(c) 400 bits/cm (Ans)

(d) 1000 bits/cm

71. The purpose of organizing data items with like characteristics into groups or classes is called

(a) sorting

(b) storing

(c) classifying (Ans)

(d) processing

72. The seek time in the case of fixed head magnetic disk is

(a) 20 ms

(b) 10 ms

(c) 5 ms

(d) 2 ms

(e) zero (Ans)

73. Some magnetic disks are very large. Its diameter may be around

(a) 0.25 m

(b) 0.5 m

(c) 1.2 m (Ans)

(d) 2 m

74. Which of the following memories will be used to store variable quantities or data ?

(a) RAM (Ans)

(b) ROM

(c) PROM

(d) EPROM

75. Term 'software' is related to

(a) electronic contacter

(b) electrical circuit

(c) programming (Ans)

(d) electromechanical relays.

76. If a computer uses 500 characters, how many bits this system require to give a different code to all characters ?

(a) 5 bits

(b) 7 bits

(c) 8 bits

(d) 9 bits

(e) 10 bits (Ans)

77. Which of the following does not represent peripheral data storage device ?

(a) punched tape (Ans)

(b) magnetic tape

(c) magnetic disk

(d) magnetic drum

78. The magnetic tape usually has the following number of tracks :

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 7 to 9 (Ans)

(d) 16

79. The width of magnetic tape is generally

(a) 5 mm

(b) 10 mm

(c) 12.5 mm (Ans)

(d) 25 mm

80. The thickness of magnetic tape is

(a) 1 μm

(b) 12 μm

(c) 26 μm

(d) 43 μm

(e) 53 μm (Ans)

81. A drum can store about

(a) 1 million bytes

(b) 10 million bytes (Ans)

(c) 100 million bytes

(d) 1000 million bytes

82. In computer terminology, an assembler means

(a) a person who assembles the parts

(b) a program (Ans)

(c) a person who writes program

(d) a high level language.

83. Which of the following translates the written FORTRAN program into machine language ?

(a) programmer

(b) operator

(c) complier (Ans)

84. The term 'Glich' in a computer terminology refers to

(a) an error condition either in hardware or in software that causes malfunction (Ans)

(b) direct access storage devices

(c) error correcting code

(d) digital to analog converter

85. BASIC is a

(a) high level language (Ans)

(b) software language

(c) interpreter language

(d) low level language

86. The process of translation from high level language to machine code is carried out by a microprocessor under the control of a very elaborate program called

(a) BASIC

(b) CORAL

(c) Complier (Ans)

(d) FORTRAN

(e) COBOL

87. Which of the following is the fastest input/output device :

(a) teletype writer

(b) visual display unit

(c) magnetic floppy disk (Ans)

(d) magnetic tape cassette

88. Which of the following is not the input device to the computer :

(b) key board

(c) video monitor (Ans)

(d) magnetic floppy disk.

89. The symbol (=) in the basic language

(a) is used for equating two expressions

(b) means "be replaced by" (Ans)

(c) is never used

(d) represents a LET statement

90. Pick up the legal character of BASIC assignment

(a) AB

(b) 4C

(c) TWO

(d) Z6 (Ans)

91. Which of the following is not the out put device to the computer ?

(b) paper tape punch

(c) video monitor

(d) matrix impact printer

92. Assembly languages

(a) need no translation

(b) use binary numbers only

(c) use English and mathematical symbols

(d) use mnemonics (Ans)

(e) are somewhat like high level languages

93. High level languages

(a) need no translation

(b) use binary numbers only

(c) use English and mathematical symbols (Ans)

(d) are understood directly by computer

94. An assembler in computers refers to a

(a) program (Ans)

(b) language

(c) hardware

(d) person

95. Which of the following device is not associated with computer ?

(a) mice (Ans)

(b) printer

(c) VDU

(d) keyboard

96. A complier is

(a) a computer hardware combination

(b) a program which translates from one high level language to another one

(c) a program which translates from high level language to machine language (Ans)

(d) none of the above

97. Match the following :

(a) OCR (i) a storage device

(b) Plotter (ii) a device used to read data directly from paper

(c) Floppy disk (iii) an input device used in graphics

(d) Witty mouse (iv) an output device used in graphics

Ans : a - ii, b - iv, c - i , d - iii

98. Match the following :

(a) Input unit (i) performs data mani-pulation

(b) Output unit (ii) feeds data into CPU

(c) Memory unit (iii) directs other units to perform specific task

(d) Arithmetic unit (iv) stores program and data

(e) Control unit (v) communicates response of the computer to the user

Ans : a - ii, b - v, c - iv , d - iii, e - i

99. Match the following :

(a) W. Oughtred (i) Bones

(b) PASCLAL (ii) ENIAC

(c) NAPIER (iii) Slide rule

(d) MAUCHLY (iv) Mechanical
& ECKERT calculator

Ans : a - iii, b - iv, c - i , d - ii

100. The binary number 1101100.110 in octal form will be

(a) 152.6

(b) 154.6 (Ans)

(c) 145.6

(d) 174.6
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Paper Type : Mechanical-Engineering

1. The ratio of specific heats Cp/Cv
a) varies linearly with temperature
b) varies linearly with pressure
c) first increases and then decreases with increase in temperature
d) first increases and then decreases with increase in pressure
e) remaining constant (Ans)

2. According to St. Venant's Principle
b) it is a method for determining the stress conditions at the end of the plates
c) stress conditions approach uniformly as the distance from the point of application of the force increase (Ans)
d) after a point of time the stresses in a loaded member tend to relieve themselves
e) stress conditions vary widely in unpredictable way as the distance from the point of application of force increases.

3. The maximum height of a syphon for a fluid of specific gravity ρ under atmospheric condition is
a) ρ/10 metres
b) 10 (1+ρ) metres
ρ
c) 10/(1-ρ) metres
d) 10/ρ metres (Ans)
e) 10/(1+ρ) metres

4. An impulse is defined as
a) force X displacement
b) force X velocity
c) mass X velocity
d) force X time (Ans)
e) torque X time

5. Which rays have the least wavelength
a) infra -red
b) ultraviolet
c) X-rays
d) cosmic rays (Ans)

6. Steel reinforcing bars are used in reinforced cement concrete because
a) the concrete is weak in compression
b) it increases the density of the concrete
c) it increases life of concrete
d) it facilitates in quick setting of R.C.C
e) the concrete is weak in tension (Ans)

7. The process in which the molecules of a compound become large is known as
a) Coalescence
b) Polymerisation (Ans)
c) charging
d) atomisation
e) expansion

8. In a 8 x37 wire rope, the number 8 indicates the
a) diameter of the wire rope in mm
b) number of strands (Ans)
c) number of wires
d) guage number of the wire
e) diameter of strand

9. The compressibility of a substance is proportional to
a) the poisson's ratio
b) the modulus of elasticity
c) the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
d) the bulk modulus of elasticity
e) the reciprocal of the bulk modulus of elasticity (Ans)

10. A body which absorbs all readiation falling on it is known as
a) opaque body
b) black body (Ans)
c) transparent body
d) ideal body
e) polished body

11. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as
a) Perfect section
b) jointless section
c) ERW section
d) seamless section (Ans)
e) continuous section

12. If two objects are weighed in water and both of them lose the same weight, then the two objects must have identical
a) specific gravities
b) weights in air
c) volumes (Ans)
d) densities
e) weights in water

13. The purpose of providing sleeves around anchor bolts that bolt steel columns to footings is to
a) allow for minor lateral adjustments of anchor bolts (Ans)
b) provide better bearing of base plate on the footing
c) provide greater bond between anchor bolt and footing
d) allow the proper setting of the column
e) provide reinforcement

14. In order to provide arrangement for pulling etc. the ends of two rods are threaded with right handed thread and left handed thread. Both the rods are coupled together by
a) turnbuckle (Ans)
b) thimble
c) wing nut
d) eyebolt
e) knuckle joint

15. A 1000 kg block resting on a horizontal plane has a static coefficient of friction of 0.33 and is acted on by a horizontal force of 200 kg. Under the above conditions, the frictional resistance is
a) 200 kg (Ans)
b) more than 200 kg
c) 500 kg
d) less than 200 kg
e) 1000 kg

16. The basic purpose of using a flywheel on rotating machinery is to
a) allow rapid acceleration
b) store and release energy as required (Ans)
c) match output and input
d) balance the rotating parts
e) control the rotational speed

17. Steel columns are tied to concrete foundations by
a) grout
b) anchor bolts (Ans)
c) cement paste
d) bolts
e) eyebolt

18. In a loaded horizontal, homogeneous rectangular beam, the horizontal shearing stress at any cross-section perpendicular to the neutral axis has a maximum value at the neutral axis and in comparison to average shearing stress at that section it is
a) 1.5 times (Ans)
b) double
c) 2.5 times
d) thrice
e) four times

19. Two bodies of identical shape but different densities are dropped from a tower. Which of the following is true ?
a) as per Stoke's law they will achieve the same terminal velocity and reach the ground at the same time (Ans)
b) the less dense one will arrive first
c) the more dense one will arrive first
d) they will become attracted to each other and arrive at the same time.
e) Which one arrives first would depend on atmospheric conditions.

20. If speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, then
a) Power required to operate it is doubled
b) the volumetric discharge is increased 4 times
c) the head becomes 4 times as great (Ans)
d) specific speed becomes 4 times
e) all of the above

21. In a laminated spring, the various strips are made of different length for the following reason
a) reduction in weight
b) ease in fabrication
c) material economy
d) space consideration
e) equal distribution of stress (Ans)

22. Which of the following metals has the greatest specific gravity
a) Zinc
c) iron
d) mercury (Ans)
e) nickel

23. Material with maximum density is
b) osmium (Ans)
c) uranium
d) tungsten
e) titanium

24. Toughness of a material can be measured with the help of
a) Vickers pyramid hardness test
b) universal testing machine (Ans)
c) nothced -bar tests
d) standard spiral tests
e) scratch test

25. Notched -bar tests are frequently used for testing
a) the impact strength of a material (Ans)
b) the hardness of a material
c) the machinability of a metal
d) the corrosion resistance of the material
e) the endurance limit of the material

26. Lack of toughness in material is usually referred to as
a) ductility
b) brittleness (Ans)
c) malleability
d) plasticity
e) hardness

27. The diameter of a shaft in any power transmission system is proportional to
a) speed of the shaft
b) torque to be transmitted
c) horse power to be transmitted (Ans)
d) allowable shear stress of the shaft material
e) polar moment of inertia

28. In riveted structural steel work, the type of member that usually connects a beam to column is
a) an angle (Ans)
b) a channel
c) a gusset plate
d) a tee
e) a knuckle

29. Unwin's Rule for riveted joints gives the relationship between
a) diameter of the rivet and the load
b) thickness of the plate and the load
c) thickness of plate and number of rivets
d) diameter of rivet and thickness of plate (Ans)
e) number of rivets and size of rivet

30. The Rock well number refers to a material's
a) malleability
b) toughness
c) piezo-electric constant
d) plasticity
e) hardness (Ans)

31. The property of steel that makes it suitable for use in cable is its strength in
a) Compression
b) tension (Ans)
c) shear
d) torsion
e) bending

32. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack depends upon
a) helix angle
b) angle of friction (Ans)
d) velocity of ratio

33. A ball is moving in a straight path down an inclined plane with constantly increase speed. Pick up the incorrect statement.
a) its acceleration is increasing (Ans)
b) its acceleration is constant
c) its kinetic energy is increasing
d) its potential energy is decreasing
e) sum of potential and kinetic energies is constant

34. The frequency (f) of a vibrating string is related to the mass/unit length of the string (m). Which of the following relationship is correct ?
a) f is proportional to m
b) f is proportional to 1/m
c) f is proportional to √m
d) f is proportional 1/√m (Ans)
e) f is proportional 1/m3/2

35. It dT the drop in temperature and dp the drop in pressure in a throttling process, then Joule-Thomson coefficient is defined as
a) dp/dT
b) dT/dp (Ans)
c) 1 + dp/dT
d) 1 + dT/dp
e) 1 - dT/dp
6. ### krishnaBanned

36. The isentropic expansion of superheated steam is fairly represented by pvn = constant, when n=
a) 1.315 (Ans)
b) 1
c) 1.27
d) 1.41
e) 1.35

37. In Figure line AB represents the following process

a) heating above the dew point (Ans)
b) cooling above the dew point
c) cooling below dew point (dehumidification)
d) cooling and dehumidifying

38. In Diesel engines, injection of fuel continues till
a) the spark plug gives out a spark
b) the compression is complete
c) the clearance volume is filled with the fuel oil
d) the cut off point is reached (Ans)
e) discharge valve opens

39. The heat is supplied partly under constant pressure and partly under constant volume in the following cycle
a) Carnot cycle
b) Diesel cycle
c) Dual cycle (Ans)
d) Otto cycle
e) Rankine cycle

40. A critical depth meter is associated with
a) water hammer
b) tranquil flow
c) surge
d) hydraulic jump (Ans)

41. In multi-cylinder engines a particular sequence in the firing order is necessary
a) to give good distribution of fuel to all the cylinders
b) to give better balance of the engine
c) to provide the best engine performance (Ans)
d) to operate the ignition system smoothly
e) to obtain uniform torque diagram

42. As the number of cylinders in multi-cylinder engines increases, the power -to - weight ratio
a) remain the same
b) decrease
c) increase (Ans)
d) becomes zero
e) first decreases and then increases

43. Piston is connected to the connecting rod by
a) sleeve bearing
b) cap bolts
c) small end bearings
d) big end bearings
e) gudgeon pins (Ans)

44. Engine misfiring is likely to result from
a) spark plug gap too narrow
b) spark plug gap too wide (Ans)
c) incorrect mixture
d) vapour lock in fuel line
e) spark plug running too hot or too cold.

45. Rotameter is used for measuring
a) density
b) viscosity
c) flow (Ans)
d) velocity
e) pressure

46. Bar is the Unit of
a) Pressure (Ans)
b) power
c) energy
d) viscosity
e) level

47. With continuous usage of the spark plug, the spark plug gap size
a) decrease
b) increase (Ans)
c) remains the same
d) becomes zero
e) increases/decreases depending on engine rating

48. The control rods in nuclear power plants are made of
b) magnesium
c) graphite
e) deuterion

49. In thermodynamics, Carnot cycle is also called as
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant volume cycle
c) Constant temperature cycle
d) constant heat cycle (Ans)
e) constant entropy cycle

50. Otto cycle used in petrol engines is also known as
a) constant pressure cycle
b) constant volume cycle (Ans)
c) dual cycle
d) diesel cycle
e) constant heat cycle

51. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. Engine working on the Otto cycle is a function of
a) working substance
b) volume of cylinder
c) compression ratio (Ans)
d) the quality of fuel used in the engine
e) ratio of maximum and minimum temperature

52. Pick out the wrong relationship
a) E = 2G(1+P)
b) G = E/2 (1- μ) (Ans)
c) μ = (E - 2G) 2G
d) K = E/3 (1-2μ)
e) μ = (3K -E)/6K.
E = modulus of elasticity in tension or compression, G = modulus of elasticity in shear, K = bulk modulus of elasticity. (d) K = E/3 (1-2μ) = poisson's ratio.

53. Materials having elongation less than 5% are called brittle. In such cases, factor of safety is based on
a) yield stress
b) endurance limit
c) limit of proportianality
d) ultimate stress (Ans)
e) proof stress

54. The stiffness of beam varies as
a) 1 , 1 and (depth, h)3 (Ans)

b) 1 , 1 , h2
P l

c) P, l3, h3

d) 1 , 1 , 1
P l 2 h3

e) 1 , 1 , h3
P l 3

55. If the span of a beam is constant, a shallow beam compared to a deeper beam will be subjected to
a) less deformation
b) greater deformation (Ans)
c) more or less same deformation
d) equal deformation
e) unpredictable

56. If depth of a beam is constant, then a beam of double span will attain a given deflection with
a) on-quarter the stress (Ans)
b) half the stress
c) one-eighth the stress
d) one-third the stress
e) one-sixth the stress

57. In the beams, the order factors remaining same, the deflection varies as
a) 1 and 1
Stress (s) modulus of elasticity (E)
b) s, 1 (Ans)
E
c) s2, 1
E
d) s, 1
E

e) s, E

58. The most usual cause of excessive tyre wear is
a) less air pressure inside the tyre (Ans)
b) excessive air pressure inside the tyre
c) excessive speed of vehicle
d) improper braking system used

59. the brake efficiency is 100 per cent when
a) the brakes are in excellent condition
b) the driver brings the vehicle to a dead stop in 1 second
c) the stopping distance is 10 metres at a speed of 10 km/hr
d) the rate of deceleartion is 1 m/sec 2
e) the rate of deceleration is 10 m/sec 2 (Ans)

60. Sodium in fuel oil for gas turbines is harmful. It is removed before firing fuel by
b) washing oil with water and removing water by centrifuging (Ans)
c) heating oil and cooling it suddenly
d) electrostatic precipitation
e) allowing oil to settle for long time

61. In the expression P1V1n = P2V2n for an isentropic expansion, 'n' is :
a) (Cp - Cv) /Cp
b) (Cv-Cp)/Cv
c) Cv-Cp
d) Cp/Cv (Ans)
e) 1- Cp/Cv

62. In which process the solid changes directly to the gaseous form
a) sublimation (Ans)
b) polytropic change
c) allotropic change
d) recrystallization
e) evaporation

63. Air fuel ratio in petrol engine is controlled by
a) fuel pump
b) injector
c) governor
d) carburettor (Ans)
e) controller

64. The ratio of Cp/Cv for air and most common gases below 500oC is of the order of
a) 0.87
b) 1.04
c) 1.00
d) 1.27
e) 1.40 (Ans)

65. A hot body will radiate heat most rapidly if its surface is
a) rough and white
b) white and polished
c) grey
d) black and rough (Ans)
e) black and polished

66. The most efficiency thermodynamic cycle is
a) Carnot (Ans)
b) Stirling
c) Diesel
d) Otto
e) Rankine

67. In rainy season, desert coolers become ineffective because of
a) fine weather
b) low temperature
c) low humidity
d) high humidity (Ans)
e) none of the above

68. Greater flexibility in plant layout is achieved in the case of
a) layout by fixed position
b) process layout (Ans)
c) product layout
d) group layout
e) functional layout

69. The concept of 'ABC' analysis is applied mostly in
a) plant layout and materials handling
b) ergonomics
c) methods time measurement
d) inventory control (Ans)
e) process planning

70. The scientific study of the relationship between man and his working environment is known as :
a) industrial psychology
b) ergonomics (Ans)
c) industrial engineering
d) work study
e) industrial management

71. In theory of metal cutting the shear plane angle is the angle between
a) shear plane and job surface (Ans)
b) shear plane and vertical plane
c) shear plane and horizontal plane
d) shear plane and tool surface
e) shear plane and tool axis

72. The tool signature comprises
a) 5 elements
b) 6 elements
c) 7 elements (Ans)
d) 8 elements
e) 9 elements

73. In tool signature, the nose radius is indicated
a) in the first position
b) in the last position (Ans)
c) in the middle
d) second from end
e) second position

74. Which one of the following is not a part of micrometer
a) thimble
b) spindle
c) sleeve
d) beam (Ans)
e) anvil

75. Point angle of drills is usually more while drilling
a) mild steel
b) aluminium
c) soft cast iron
d) marble
e) hard alloys (Ans)
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76. Mohs scale of hardness in an arbitrary one which is used to describe the hardness of several mineral substance on a scale of
a) 1 through 5
b) 1 through 10 (Ans)
c) 1 through 25
d) 1 through 50
e) 1 through 100

77. The specific gravity of liquids is usually measured by means of a
a) hygrometer
b) thermometer
c) hydrometer (Ans)
d) piezometer
e) Baume meter

78. One of the arbitrary scale used for scale reading of a hydrometer is API (Americal Petroleum Institute). Corresponding to 10 A.P.I. degree, specific gravity is 1,000. As the API degree increase beyond 10 the specific gravity value.
a) increases
b) decreases (Ans)
c) remains same
d) first increases and then decreases
e) first decreases and then increases

79. A structure is said to be statically indeterminate when
a) it is not properly loaded
b) it is imbalanced
c) forces are so huge that it may collapse
d) it is not properly supported
e) the conditions are not sufficient for the determination of the supports or other forces (Ans)

80. If Ix and Iy be the moments of inertias about any two axes it right angles to each other in the plane of he area and intersecting at the pole, then polar moment of inertia Ip is equal to
a) Ix + Iy (Ans)
b) Ix + Iy
2
c) Ix X Iy
d) Ix X Iy
e) ∫Ix Iy

81. In every plane area, a given point being taken as the origin, there is at one pair of rectangular axes in the plane of the area about one of which the moment of inertia is a maximum , and a minimum about the other. There moments of inertia are called the
a) principal moments of inertia (Ans)
b) moments of inertia about parallel axes
c) polar moment of inertia
d) product of inertia
e) none of the above

82. The moment of inertia about axis YY of a rod of mass M, length L, with shape and size of the cross section un known (assuming approximately that the wieght is all concentrated along the axis of the rod), placed horizontally is equal to
a) Ml2
b) Ml2
2
c) Ml2 (Ans)
3
d) Ml
4
e) Ml2
6
83. If r1 and r2 be outer and inner raii of a thick hollow sphere and ρ its density, then its M.I. about a diameter is equal to
a) ρπ (r15 - r25)
b) ρπ (r15 - r25)
2
c) 2 ρπ (r15 - r25)
3
d) 2 ρπ (r15 - r25)
5
e) 8 ρπ (r15 - r25) (Ans)
15

84. The centre of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length l and mass m, suspended vertically from top, will be at following distance from the top
a) l/2
b) l/3
c) 2l/3 (Ans)
d) 3l/4
e) 5l/8

85. The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius 'r' resting on a horizontal plane, (Refer Fig.) will be at following height above the plane.

a) r
2
b) 2 r
3
c) 3r (Ans)
2
d) 4 r
3
e) 8 r
5

86. Centre of percussion and axis of oscillation
a) coincide
b) are interchangeable (Ans)
c) act at the centre of gravity of body
d) are radius of gyration apart
e) are non interchangeable

87. If k = radius of gyration of a body, q = distance from the axis of oscillation of the centre of percussion, and x = distance from the same axis to the centre of gravity, then following relation holds good
a) k = √qx (Ans)
b) k = qx
2
c) k = q + x
2
d) k = √qx
2
e) k = √q
x

88. If I1, I2 and I3 represent the principal moments of inertia of a gyroscope spinning with a constant angular velocity 1 about axis I, and if the gyroscope is about the third axis, then a

vector moment results along the second axis such that M2 =
a) l2 (dω2) + (I1 - I3) ω3ω1 (Ans)
dt
b) l2 (dω2) + (I1 - I3) ω2
dt
c) l2 (dω2) + (I1 - I3) ω3
dt
d) l1 (dω1) + (I2 - I3) ω2ω2
dt
e) l3 (dω1) + (I2- I3) ω2ω3
dt
(subscripts 1, 2 and 3 represent a right hand set of reference axes)

89. For a symmetrical body having M.I. = I in all three mutually perpendicular planes, if axes of spin and percussion are at right angles having rate of spin = ω and rate of spin =Ω, the gyroscopic moment is equal to
a) IωΩ (Ans)
b) Iω/Ω
c) Iω/ω
d) I(ωΩ)2
e) I/ωΩ

90. The coefficient of friction at higher velocities with increase in velocity
a) increase
b) decrease (Ans)
c) remains unaffected
d) increases first and then decrease
e) may increase/ decrease depending on pressure acting on the surfaces

91. The hydraulic radius of a pipe of diameter 'D' flowing full is
a) D
b) D/2
c) D/3
d) D/4 (Ans)
e) D/8

92. The velocity profiles for laminar flow and turbulent flow respectively are
a) parabolic, logarithmic (Ans)
b) logarithmic, parabolic
c) linear, parabolic
d) logarithmic linear
e) elliptical, logarithmic

93. The hydraulic radius of a circular pipe is equal to
a) its diameter (D)
b) D/2
c) D/4 (Ans)
d) D/3
e) 2D/3

94. In the case of orifice plates, the maximum differential is obtained by using following types of tap offs
a) 1D, 1/2D taps
b) 1/2 D, D taps
c) flange taps
d) Vena contracta taps (Ans)
e) ID, ID taps

95. In a siphon, the air pump or ejector is opened occasionally to remove accumulated air and vapour for priming the pipe. This is done
a) to increase flow
b) to increase head of siphon
c) to increase efficiency of the system
d) to reduce noise
e) because the flow will not take place unless the siphon is full of water (Ans)

96. The divergent cone in venturi tube is provided to reduce the overall pressure loss of the meter. The coefficient of discharge, due to removal of the divergent cone will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) unpredictable
d) remain unaffected (Ans)
e) may increase/decrease depending on other considerations

97. Whether the flow in an open-channel is critical, subcritical, or super critical is determined by
a) Weber number
b) Reynold number
c) Mach number
d) Froude number (Ans)

98. In the case of open channel flow, the specific energy is defined as the energy of the fluid
a) referred to the bottom of the channel as the datum (Ans)
b) divided by density
c) divided by static head (Ans)
e) divided by the flow rate.

99. For monoatomic gases, the specific heats with rise in temperature
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain unchanged (Ans)
d) first increase and then decrease
e) first decrease and then increase

100. If Q1 is the heat input at temperature T1 to a Carnot engine and Q2 is the heat rejected at temperature T2, then which of the following is the correct statement.
a) Q1 - Q2 = constant
T1 T2
b) Q1 - Q2
T1 T2
c) Q1 + Q2 = 0 (Ans)
T1 T2
d) Q1 - Q2
T1 T2
e) Q1 X T1 = Q2 X T2

101. If T0 is the lowest available temperature for heat discard and △s the net change in entropy, then the increase in unavailable energy in thermodynamic process will be equal to
a) T/△s
b) T0 X △s (Ans)
c) △s /T0
d) 1 - T0 X △s
e) 1+ T0 X △s
T0 X △s
102. Free energy or the Helmholtz function in thermodynamic processes is defined as
a) u-TS
b) u + TS
c) u + pv
d) h - TS (Ans)
e) TS - u
(Where u = internal energy
T = temperature
and S = entropy)
103. Availability of a system or quantity of energy in a thermodynamic process is defined by
a) Gibbs function (Ans)
b) Helmholtz function
c) Maxwell equation
d) Clapeyron equation
e) Carnot cycle

104. According to first law of thermodynamics
a) wherever energy is transformed from one form to another, energy is always conserved
b) energy can neither be created not destroyed
c) the sum total of all energy remains constant
d) any one of the above (Ans)
e) none of the above

105. The free enthalpy or Gibbs function is defined as
a) h-TS (Ans)
b) u - TS
c) pv + TS
d) h + TS
e) u + TS
(Where h = enthalpy, u = internal energy, T=temperature, s=entropy, p=pressure, v=volume)

106. Which of the following cycle is used as the basis for analysis of gas turbine opeation.
a) Carnot
b) Otto
c) Diesel
d) Joule (Ans)
e) Stirling

107. The discharge of saturated steam through an orifice, in terms of the area of orifice and steam inlet pressure is expressed by
a) Napier's equation
b) Grashoff's formula
c) Rateau's formula
d) any one of the above (Ans)
e) none of the above

108. When steam expands rapidly in turbine nozzles, it becomes supersaturated (i.e. the condensation required by the ordinary theory of adiabatic expansion does not occur on account of the rapidity of expansion). The effect of supersaturation in turbines is
a) increase in efficiency
b) increase in dryness fraction
c) loss of energy (Ans)
d) increase of energy
e) heating of steam

109. For every gas, there is one temperature at which no temperature change occurs during a Joule-Thomson expansion. Below this temperature, a gas cools on throttling and above this, its temperature rises. The temperature at which no temperature change occurs is known as
a) saturation temperature
b) throttling temperature
c) supersaturation temperature
d) isotatic temperature
e) inversion temperature (Ans)